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Oral and Maxillofacial Pathology MCQsOral and Maxillofacial Surgery MCQs

MCQs on Benign & Malignant Tumors – Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery

In this Post you will be able to take quiz containing important MCQs of Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery and topic covered in this Quiz will be Benign & Malignant Tumors in Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery. Correct Answers are Marked in Bold and Blue colour.

Benign and Malignant Tumors of Oral Cavity Multiple Choice Questions

  1. Tumor represented T2 N2 M0 is classified as:
    A. Stage I
    B. Stage II
    C. Stage III
    D. Stage IV
  2. Sturge Weber syndrome is characterized by all EXCEPT:
    A. Exophytic oral Hemangioma
    B. Facial hematoma
    C. Tramline calcification of dura on lateral cephalogram
    D. Facial hemangioma
  3. Keratocanthoma is found most commonly on ?
    A. Lip
    B. Gingiva
    C. Tongue
    D. Hard palate
  4. Clear cells are seen in:
    A. Chondrosarcoma
    B. Osteosarcoma
    C. Fibrosarcoma
    D. Ewing’s sarcoma
  5. Neoplastic transformation in leukoplakia is seen most commonly in:
    A. Buccal mucosa
    B. Floor of mouth
    C. Lateral border of tongue
    D. Palate
  6. Plasma cell tumour of bones with B-lymphocytic origin is:
    A. Plasmacytoma
    B. Multiple myeloma
    C. Burkitt’s lymphoma
    D. None of the above
    E. Both A & B
  7. The following lesion is a doubtful premalignant lesion for oral malignancy:
    A. Leukoplakia
    B. Chronic hyperplastic candidiasis
    C. Erythroplakia
  8. Definitive diagnosis of oral cancer is made by:
    A. Complete radiographic survey
    B. Biopsy
    C. Exfoliative cytology
    D. Pantograph
  9. Diffuse erythema (pinpoint petechiae) and white patches in smoker’s palate occur due to:
    A. Complete obstruction to minor salivary gland orifices
    B. Keratinization with partially occluded minor salivary glands
    C. Diffuse parakeratinization of the palate
    D. Excessive orthokeratinization of the palate
  10. Histochemical demonstration of glycogen in the cells can help in the diagnosis of:
    A. Malignant melanoma
    B. Squamous cell carcinoma
    C. Kaposi’s sarcoma
    D. Ewing’s sarcoma
  11. On biopsy report of CGCG on the basis of histologically & morphological similarities differential diagnosis is made between:
    A. Fibrous dysplasia
    B. Hyperparathyroidism
    C. Osteitis deformans
    D. Hyperthyroidism
  12. Firbroma combined with glandular tissue is:
    A. Neurofibroma
    B. Fibroadenoma
    C. Fibrolipoma
    D. Fibromyoma
  13. Which of the following is false about ossifying fibroma ?
    A. Affects people in 3-4 decade of life
    B. Maxilla affected more than the mandible
    C. Circumscribed radio opacity
    D. Continuous growth
  14. Treatment for verrucous carcinoma is:
    A. Surgery + radiotherapy
    B. Excision
    C. Laser technique
    D. Alpha (a) interferon
  15. Which of the following is not a type of leukoplakia:
    A. Ulcerative
    B. Bullous
    C. Speckled
    D. Homogenous
  16. Benign tumor which shows metastasis:
    A. Warthin’s tumor
    B. Ameloblastoma
    C. Keratocanthoma
    D. Neurofibroma
  17. Lateral skull view of palatal tori is used to know:
    A. Extent
    B. Pneumatization
    C. Bone pattern
    D. Location
  18. Presence of Epstein Barr virus in hairy leukoplakia can be demonstrated using following methods EXCEPT:
    A. Tzanck smear
    B. Polymerase chain reaction
    C. In situ hybridization
    D. Electron microscopy
  19. Hairy leukoplakia is associated with all of the following EXCEPT:
    A. Filiform to flat patch on lateral tongue
    B. Bilateral appearance
    C. Epstein Barr virus
    D. AIDS
  20. Oral ulceration resembling Apthae are encountered in:
    A. Gluten enteropathy
    B. Chronic smokers
    C. Excess of B-complex
    D. Anti-malarial medication
  21. Brachytherapy means:
    A. Chemotherapy
    B. Radiation administered interstially through catheters
    C. Lasers
    D. Radiation involving normal tissues
  22. Commonest site of carcinoma of tongue:
    A. Posterior one third
    B. Ventral surface
    C. Tip of tongue
    D. Lateral margin
  23. A patient with carcinoma cheek has tumor of 2.5 cms located close to and involving the lower alveolus. A single mobile homolateral node measuring node measuring 6 cm is palpable. Based on these clinical findings TNM stage of the tumor is:
    A. T1 N1 Mo
    B. T2 N2 Mo
    C. T3 N1 Mo
    D. T4 N2 Mo
  24. Tumors metastatic to the jaw bones are most likely to be found in the:
    A. Mandibular condyle
    B. Posterior moral region
    C. Anterior maxilla
    D. Maxillary tuberosity
  25. Which of the following is an oral precancer:
    A. Oral hairy leukoplakia
    B. White spongy naevus
    C. Leukemia
    D. Speckled Leukoplakia
  26. White, spongy, folded thick mucosa is seen in:
    A. Oral hairy leukoplakia
    B. Aspirin burn
    C. White spongy nevus
    D. Pseudomembranous Candidiasis
  27. The condition involved with an unerupted tooth or impacted tooth is:
    A. Dentigerous cyst
    B. Mural ameloblastoma
    C. Adenomatoid odontogenic tumor
    D. All of the above
  28. Ossifying fibroma manifests as:
    A. Unilocular radiolucency
    B. Unilocular radio opacity
    C. Multilocular radiolucency
    D. Multiocular radio opacity
    E. Both A & B
  29. Which of the following conditions is least likely to present as an eccentric osteolytic lesion:
    A. Aneurysmal bone cyst
    B. Giant cell tumour
    C. Fibrous cortical defect
    D. Simple bone cyst
  30. Pripheral giant cell granuloma occurs most commonly on the:
    A. Gingiva
    B. Alveolar ridge
    C. Palate
    D. Floor of the mouth
  31. The most common bone tumor that occurs in children is:
    A. Osteosarcoma
    B. Ewing’s sarcoma
    C. Metastatic carcinoma
    D. Multiple myeloma
  32. Hamartoma is:
    A. Neoplastic
    B. Non-neoplastic
    C. Afflicted by trauma
    D. Hormonal distubance
  33. The tissue of which lesion has been described as resembling a blood sponge with large pores:
    A. Cavernous hemangioma
    B. Capillary hemangioma
    C. Aneurysmal bone cyst
    D. Eruption hematoma
  34. Arecanut chewing is aetiological factor in:
    A. Leukoedema
    B. Oral dubmucous fibrosis
    C. Erythema multiforme
    D. Oral lichen planus
  35. Mobility of teeth in carcinoma of Maxillary sinus is due to involvement by tumor of:
    A. Anterior wall of the sinus
    B. Posterior wall of the sinus
    C. Roof of the sinus
    D. Floor of the sinus
  36. In which one of the following perineural invasion in head and neck cancer is most commonly seen ?
    A. Adenocarcinoma
    B. Adenoid cystic carcinoma
    C. Basal cell adenoma
    D. Squamous cell carcinoma
  37. All of the following malignancies metastasize except?
    A. Basal cell carcinoma
    B. Adenocarcinoma
    C. Squamous cell carcinoma
    D. Melanoma
  38. Small palpable mass elevated above the epithelial surface is?
    A. Papule
    B. Macule
    C. Plaque
    D. Vesicle
  39. Multiple punched out lesion are seen in?
    A. Paget’s dissease
    B. Osteosarcoma
    C. Ewing sarcoma
    D. Multiple myeloma
  40. Teratoma is best described as:
    A. Namartous developmental manifestation consisting of three different layers
    B. Occurs most commonly in stomach and lungs
    C. Originates from mesodermal tissue
    D. Associated with very painful condition
  41. Onion Skin appearance of radiographs is seen in:
    A. fibrous dysplasia
    B. osteosarcoma
    C. Ewing’s sarcoma
    D. Chondrosarcoma
  42. Which of the following is benign in nature:
    A. Lymphoma
    B. lymphangioma
    C. Melanoma
    D. Leukemia
  43. On clinical examination a 60 years old female had a tumor in the right buccal mucosa. The size of the tumor was about 2 cm in diameter. There was no involvement of regional lymph nodes and also had no distant metastasis The TNM stage of the tumor is:
    A. T1 No Mo
    B. T1 NI Mo
    C. T1 N2 Mo
    D. T2 No Mo
  44. Tobacco usage has been associated with:
    A. Hyperkeratosis
    B. Erythema
    C. Ulceration
    D. None of the above
  45. Acanthosis is:
    A. Increase in mitotic division
    B. Increase in thickness of superficial layer
    C. Increase in thickness of spinous layer
    D. Disruption of basal lamina
  46. Melanoma is:
    A. Benign tumour of skin and mucous membrane
    B. Malignant tumour of skin and mucous membrane
    C. Malignant tumour of melanophores
    D. Benign tumor of melanophores
  47. Tumour that doesn’t show spontaneous regression:
    A. Neuroblastoma
    B. Retinoblastoma
    C. Malignant melanoma
    D. Octeosarcoma
  48. Swelling and redness of the orifices of minor salivary glands of the palate occurs in:
    A. Nicotinic stomatitis
    B. Leukoplakia
    C. Fovea Palatine
    D. Erythroplakia
  49. A patient complains of numbness of lower lip. There is no history of tooth extraction. It could be:
    A. Infection
    B. Metastatic neoplasia
    C. Dental Manipulation
    D. CNS disease
  50. Carcinoma of the cheek:
    A. CHaracteristically is columner-celled:
    B. Has a recognized association with chewing gum
    C. Has a recognized association with chewing betel nut
    D. Has a recognized association with geographic tongue
  51. Best results are obtained in oral submucous fibrosis is by:
    A. Intralesional cortisone therapy. with hyaluronic acid
    B. Oral cortisone with intralesional therapy (cortisone)
    C. Vitamin E and oral cortisone
    D. Intralesional placental extract
  52. Presence of epithelial Pearls in spinous layer of epithelium is characteristic of:
    A. Carcinoma
    B. Pre-cancer
    C. Dysplasia
    D. Metaplasia
  53. Most common route for metastasis of oral cancer is by:
    A. Direct textension
    B. Lymphatics
    C. Blood vessels
    D. Aspiration of tumor cells
  54. Etiology of multiple neurofibromatosis is:
    A. Genetic
    B. Viral
    C. Injury
    D. Endocrine
  55. A man who had suffered from displaced fracture of mandible complains of pain in-old fracture site near mental foramen. There is a movable tender mass on palpation in the area The best preoperative diagnosis is:
    A. Neuroleiomyoma
    B. Neurofibroma
    C. Trigeminal neuralgia
    D. Traumatic neuroma
  56. Hodgkin’s disease is considered to be:
    A. Follilcular reticulosis
    B. Inflammatory disease
    C. Chronic granulomatous disease
    D. A malignant neoplasm
  57. White rough pedunculated lesion on palate is most likely:
    A. Pleomorphic adenoma
    B. Papilloma
    C. Nevus
    D. Fibroma
  58. Which of the following is a reactive lesion of the gingiva that may demonstrate bone radiographically and often even microscopically:
    A. Osteoma
    B. Peripheral ossifying fibroma
    C. Traumatic neuroma
    D. Irritation fibroma
  59. The most common bone cancer is:
    A. Osteosarcoma
    B. Metastatic bone cancer
    C. Multiple myeloma
    D. Squamous cell carcinoma
  60. Persons with the greatest risk of oral cancer:
    A. Have a poor oro-dental hygiene, nutritional deficiencies and are chronic alcoholics
    B. Are middle aged have a poor oro-dental hygiene and regularly use tabacco
    C. Are old, chronic alcoholics and regularly and regularly use tobacco
    D. Are young, have poor oro-dental hygiene and are heavy smokers
  61. Steriform pattern of fibrous tissue is seen in:
    A. Fibrosarcoma
    B. Malingant fibrous histiocytoma
    C. Nerufibroma
    D. Ameloblastic fibroma
  62. A 3 cm squamous cell carcinoma of the retromolar trigone and invading the mandible and the medial pterygold muscle is at what TNM stage:
    A. Stage I
    B. Stage II
    C. Stage III
    D. Stage IV
  63. Papillomatous tongue is observed in:
    A. Lymphangioma
    B. Hyalinia cutus et mucosa syndrome
    C. Fetal face syndrome
    D. Tuberous scterosis
  64. Metastases from carcinoma of tongue by blood stream is more likely when the carcinoma involves the:
    A. anterior third
    B. middle third
    C. posterior third
    D. lateral margin
  65. Features characteristic of leukoplakia include all except:
    A. Hyperkeratosis
    B. Plasma cell infiltration within the dermal papilae
    C. Clinically, a paint like patch
    D. A moist shiny lesion
  66. Leukoplakia with the worst prognosis is seen on the:
    A. Dorsum of tongue
    B. Floor of mouth
    C. Buccal mucosa
    D. Palate
  67. In which of the following type of tumour the HPV-6 can be detected ?
    A. Papilloma
    B. CEOT
    C. Sarcoma
    D. Pyogenic Granuloma
  68. Which of the following epithelial changes commonly signify precancerous condition:
    A. Dyskeratosis
    B. Hyperkeratosis
    C. Parakeratosis
    D. Acanthosis
  69. Which of the following is not a feature of torus mandibularis:
    A. Common in Mongoloids
    B. Present on the lingual surface of mandible below the mylohyoid line
    C. Usually Bilateral
    D. May or may not associated with torus palatinus
  70. Which of the following does not have a viral etiology:
    A. Burkitt’s lymphoma
    B. Nasopharyngeal carcinoma
    C. Hodgkin’s lymphoma
    D. Hepatocellular carcinoma
  71. Kaposi’s sarcoma is a tumour of:
    A. Blood vessels
    B. Reticuloendothelial system
    C. Striated muscles
    D. Smooth muscles
  72. Which of the following is most likely to be fatal:
    A. Osteochondroma
    B. Giant cell tumour
    C. Paget’s disease
    D. Multiple myeloma
  73. The most common malignancy of the oral cavity is:
    A. Basal cell carcinoma
    B. Transitional cell carcinoma
    C. Melanoma
    D. Squamous cell carcinoma
  74. Which of the following conditions is characterized by cafe-au-lait spots, non-encapsulation and potential for malignant transformation:
    A. Neurilemmoma
    B. Neurofibroma
    C. Traumatic Neuroma
    D. Solitary plasmocytoma
  75. Which of the following is NOT true of sturge Weber syndrome:
    A. Hemangiomatous involvement of skin
    B. Mostly bilateral
    C. Port wine nevus
    D. Vascular gingival hyperplasia
  76. Hemosiderin pricticles are seen histologically in case of:
    A. Fibroma
    B. Pregancy tumor
    C. Peripheral giant cell granuloma
    D. Papilloma
  77. Which of the following viruses are not implicated in human malignancies:
    A. Epstein-Barr virus
    B. Herpes simplex virus type I
    C. HTLV 1
    D. Papilloma virus
  78. Which of the following has been implicated due to sunlight:
    A. Basal cell carcinoma
    B. Lymphoepithelioma
    C. Junctional nevus
    D. Verruca vulgaris
  79. During oral examination of a 57-year old man a large keratotic patch that covers the entire palate is noted some Red Spots are also seen in the patch The patient most likely is a:
    A. Pipe smoker
    B. Cigar smoker
    C. Snuff chewer
    D. Tobacco chewer
  80. Satellite lesion with locally invasive property is seen in:
    A. Chronic hypertrophic candidiasis
    B. leukoplakia
    C. dental ulcers
    D. Hemangioma
  81. On stretching the cheek the lesion disappears in:
    A. Leukoplakia
    B. Focal hyperkeratosis
    C. Leukoedema
    D. Typhoid
  82. Abtropfing affect is seen in:
    A. Junctional nevus
    B. Pemphigus
    C. Apthous ulcer
    D. Erythema multiformae
  83. Bowen’s disease is:
    A. Benign neoplasm of the G.I.T
    B. Intro epithelial carcinoma
    C. Vesiculobullous lesion of skins
    D. Ulcerative lesion of G.I.T
  84. Warty or Cauliflower like growth is:
    A. Papilloma
    B. fibroma
    C. Lipoma
    D. Torus
  85. Bence- Jones are laboratory finding of:
    A. paget’s disease
    B. Multiple myeloma
    C. Malignant melanoma
    D. Fibrous dysplasia
  86. Which of the following is a true cyst:
    A. Aneurysmal bone cyst
    B. Gingival cyst of the newborn
    C. Haemorrhagic bone cyt
    D. All of the above
  87. A rhabdomyoma is a tumour origination from:
    A. Never tissue
    B. Smooth muscle
    C. Striated muscle
    D. Vascular endothelium
  88. Which of the is the most common site for the occurrence of a basal cell carcinoma:
    A. Buccal mucosa
    B. Hard Palate
    C. Skin of the lower lip
    D. Dorsum of the tongue
  89. An Inflammed capillary hemangioma of the oral cavity looks similar to a:
    A. Nevus
    B. Neurofibroma
    C. Pyogenic granuloma
    D. Angiosarcoma
  90. Numbness of lip seen with no previous dental treatment:
    A. Meta static carcinoma
    B. Central nervous system lesion
    C. Osteomyelitis
    D. Infection
  91. In which of the following conditions pulsations or murmur may be detected:
    A. Capillary hemangioma
    B. Osteogenic sarcoma
    C. Epidermoid carcinoma
    D. Osteoid osteoma
  92. Which of the following statement is true:
    A. Kaposi sarcoma is a benign tumour
    B. Kaposi sarcoma is found in HIV positive subjects
    C. Kaposi sarcoma is malignant fast growing tumour
    D. Kaposi sarcoma is an ectodermal derivative
  93. Hemosiderin pricticles are seen histologically in case of:
    A. Fibroma
    B. Pregancy tumor
    C. Peripheral giant cell granuloma
    D. Papilloma
  94. Phleboliths are seen in:
    A. Dental pulp
    B. Salivary Gland duct
    C. Cavernous Hemangiomas
    D. Subepithelial Bulla
  95. White-lesion with definite precancerous potential:
    A. Leukoplakia
    B. Discoid lupus Erythematosus
    C. Lichen Planus
    D. All of the above
  96. Squamous papilloma is induced by:
    A. EBV
    B. HSV
    C. HPV
    D. CMV
  97. Which of the following statements is true for MEN type:
    A. There is hyperplasia of parathyroid gland
    B. Chromophobe adenoma of pituitary gland may result in acromegaly
    C. Pancreatic tumours may produce gastrin, insulin glucagon, samatostain
    D. All of the above
  98. Benign tumour of voluntary muscle:
    A. Leiomyoma
    B. Rhabdomyoma
    C. Rhabdomyosarcoma
    D. Leiomyosarcoma
  99. Port wine stain in characteristic feature of:
    A. Peutz Jegers Syndrome
    B. Sturge Weber Syndrome
    C. Albright’s Syndrome
    D. Lymphangioma
  100. The most common benign tumor occurring in oral cavity is:
    A. Papilloma
    B. Fibroma
    C. Adenoma
    D. Epulis
  101. Kaposi’s sarcoma is more commonly seen in patient with:
    A. AIDS
    B. Amyloidosis
    C. Leukemia\
    D. HSV infection
  102. Antoni type A and type B are seen in:
    A. Neurofibroma
    B. Neurilemmoma
    C. Neurofibrosarcoma
    D. Traumatic neuroma
  103. Among pre-malignant oral lesions:
    A. Leukoplakia should be proved by biopsy
    B. Leukoplakia does not disappear even after cessation of smoking
    C. Erythroplakia has a higher risk for malignancy than leukoplakia
    D. Oral submucous fibrosis is seen in all parts of the world
  104. A lesion composed of microscopic vessels is called as:
    A. Haemangioma
    B. Angioma
    C. None of Haemangioma and Angioma
    D. Heamangioma and Angioma
  105. Which of the following is the diagnostic characteristic of peripheral giant cell granuloma?
    A. Mass of granulation tissue
    B. Multinuclear giant cells
    C. Keliod like enlargement
    D. Epithelium is atrophic in some areas
  106. In TNM classification T3 stands for tumour size:
    A. >2 cm
    B. >4 cm
    C. 4 cm with invasion of adjacent structure
  107. What could be the most appropriate provisional diagnosis for multiple nodular exophytic reddish lesions of oral mucosa in an AIDS patient ?
    A. Hemangioma
    B. Focal epithelial hyperplasia
    C. Acute pseudo-membranous candidiasis
    D. Kaposi’s sarcoma
  108. Leiomyoma is a tumor of:
    A. Cerebral tissue
    B. smooth muscle
    C. striated muscle
    D. cardiac muscle
  109. Which of the following is a pseudo cyst:
    A. Mucous retention cyst
    B. Radicular cyst
    C. Aneurysmal bone cyst
    D. Dentigetous cyst
  110. Metastatic disease to the oral region is most likely to occur in which of these locations:
    A. Tongue
    B. Posterior maxilla
    C. Posterior mandible
    D. Floor of the mouth
  111. An epithelial lining is typically found in all of the following except:
    A. Sinuses
    B. Fistulae
    C. Aneurismal bone cysts
    D. Keratocytes
  112. Cancer which most commonly metastasizes to jaw bone is:
    A. Breast
    B. Prostatic
    C. Lung
    D. Kidney
  113. Osteosarcoma of the jaw:
    A. Occurs mostly in the maxilla
    B. Seen in old age
    C. Highly malignant tumour which shows early metastasis
    D. Shows a soap bubble type of radiolucency in radiographs
  114. The most common malignant tumor of the gingiva is:
    A. Malignant
    B. Sarcoma
    C. Fibro-sarcoma
    D. squamous cell carcinoma
  115. The most common site of metastasis from the mandibular sarcoma is:
    A. Lung
    B. Liver
    C. Spleen
    D. Heart
  116. All of the following are precancerous conditions except:
    A. SLE
    B. Peutz-Jeghers syndrome
    C. Plummer-vinson syndrome
    D. Xeroderma pigmentosum
  117. Oral submucous fibrosis is diagnosed by:
    A. Juxta, epithelial fibrosis (changes)
    B. Changes in epithelium
    C. Changes in submucosa
    D. All of the above
  118. Presence of Verocay bodies and having predeliction for occurrence in the tongue are seen in:
    A. Granular cell myoblastoma
    B. Neurilemmoma
    C. Neurofibroma
    D. Metaplasia
  119. Which of the following is most malignant?
    A. Neurolemmoma
    B. Neurofibroma
    C. Neurogenic fibroma
    D. Traumatic neuroma
  120. Which on of the following is a connective tissue tumour?
    A. Lipoma
    B. Melanoma
    C. Carcinoma
    D. Papilloma
  121. Which of the following is carcinoma of the skin spreads by local invasion and has no tendency to metastasise?
    A. Malignant melanoma
    B. Basal cell carcinoma
    C. Fibrosarcoma
    D. Leukoplakia
  122. Ressell’s bodies are found in:
    A. Activated macrophages
    B. Histiocytes
    C. Plasma cells
    D. Erythrocytes
  123. Sunlight is one of the etiological causes of:
    A. Squamous cell carcinoma
    B. Malignant melanoma
    C. Basal cell arinoma
    D. Port-wine stain
  124. Which among the following shows pesudo-epitheliometous hyperplasia:
    A. sq. cell carcinoma
    B. Basal cell arcinoma
    C. Verrucous carcinoma
    D. Granular cell myoblastoma
  125. Increased incidence of carcinoma is observed with:
    A. Homogenous leukoplakia
    B. Verrucous leukoplakia
    C. Nodular leukoplakia
    D. Ameloblastic fibroma
  126. Asymmetric widening of the periodontal ligament around two or more teeth is seen in:
    A. metastatic breast carcinoma
    B. osteosarcoma
    C. paget’s disease
    D. Fibrous dysplasia
  127. Commonly involved lymph nodes during metastasis from carcinomas of oral cavity is:
    A. Jugulo omohyoid and jugulo digastric
    B. sub mandibular and servical lymph nodes
    C. submental and submandibular lymphnodes
    D. None of the above
  128. Most common site of oral leukoplakia is:
    A. angle of mouth
    B. cheek mucosa
    C. Soft palate
    D. Gingiva
  129. A patient is diagnosed of oral cancer or stage T,N,M:
    A. Surgery
    B. Surgery +radiotherapy
    C. Chemotherapy alone
    D. Surgery+ chemotherapy
  130. Osteosarcoma presents a radiographic picture resembling:
    A. Sun-brust appearance
    B. Cotton-wool appearance
    C. Soap-bubble appearance
    D. Ground-glass appearance
  131. A 20yr old patient reports with multiple swelling of the jaws. Clinical examination reveals multiple hard swellings involving the jaws and intra orally several missing teeth are noticed. Panoramic radiograph reveals multiple radio opaque lesions in the maxilla and the mandible with multiple impacted teeth and supernumerary teeth indicative of Gardeners syndrome: The above mentioned condition is:
    A. Autosomal dominant disease
    B. Autosomal recessive disorder
    C. X-linked disease
    D. A syndrome of unknown cause
  132. Hemangiopericytoma resembles:
    A. Hemangioma
    B. Glomous tumour
    C. Ewings tumour
    D. Plasmacytoma
  133. Brachytherapy is:
    A. Irradiation of tissues from a distance
    B. Irradiation of tissues from a distance of 3 cm
    C. Irradiation of tissues by implants within the tissues
    D. Irradiation of tissues by radiopharmaceuticals
  134. Sarcoma of the soft tissues spread by:
    A. Blood vessels
    B. Lymphatics
    C. Direct invasion
    D. Local infiltration
  135. Squamous cell carcinoma with best prognosis is:
    A. Lip
    B. Tongue
    C. Palate
    D. Floor of the mouth
  136. Acanthosis with intraepithelial vacuolation and hyperparakeratosis is seen in:
    A. Hairy tongue (lingua villosa)
    B. Hyperplastic candidiasis
    C. Speckled leukoplakia
    D. Desquamative gingivitis
  137. The sign or symptom most suggestive of metastatic disease is:
    A. Paraesthesia
    B. Sudden swelling
    C. Root resorption
    D. Diffuse radiolucency
  138. The oral mucosa becomes rigid, blanched and opaque in which of the following conditions:
    A. Pemphigus vulgaris
    B. Lupus erythematoses
    C. Ehlers-Danlos syndrome
    D. Submucous fibrosis
  139. Oral hairy leukoplakia is seen in which of the following conditions:
    A. AIDS
    B. Hepatitis B
    C. Smoker’s keratitis
    D. Candidiasis
  140. A non-painful, slowly enlarging benign neoplasm appears as a submucosal lump and exhibits pseudoepitheliomatous hyperplasia in the overlying epithelium, is most probably:
    A. Fibroma
    B. Rhabdomyoma
    C. Granular cell tumour
    D. Papilloma
  141. Commonest site for carcinoma of tongue is:
    A. Lateral margin
    B. Tip of tongue
    C. Posterio 1/3
    D. Ventral surface
  142. The most reliable single histologic criterion for diagnosis of oral squamous cell carcinoma is:
    A. Invasion
    B. Degeneration
    C. Pleomorphism
    D. Encpsulation
  143. The most common site for metastasis from carcinoma of cheek:
    A. Brain
    B. Regional lymph nodes
    C. Lung
    D. Liver
  144. The most common precancerous lesion for oral malignancy is:
    A. chronic hypertrophic candidiasis
    B. Leukoplakia
    C. Dental ulcers
    D. atrophic glossitis
  145. Carcinoma of lip:
    A. occurs mostly is female
    B. metastases easily
    C. occurs mostly in the lower lip
    D. is mostly basal cell type
  146. Granular cell myoblastoma of tongue is:
    A. Benign tumor
    B. Malignant tumor of the tongue
    C. Lymphatic enlargement of the tongue
    D. Developmental anomaly of the tongue
  147. Starry sky appearance is seen in:
    A. Pagets disease
    B. Cherubism
    C. Garrey’s osteomyelitis
    D. Burkitts lymphoma
  148. Which of the following conditions is not considered as premalignant
    A. Erosive lichen planus
    B. Syphilitic glossitis
    C. Leukoedema
    D. Leukoplakia
  149. Frequent bouts of epistaxis are a conspicuous features of:
    A. Encephalotrigeminal angiomatosis
    B. Hereditary haemorrhagic telangiectasia
    C. Nasopharyngeal angiofibroma
    D. Vascular nevus
  150. The term poikilokaryosis refers to:
    A. Alteration of nuclear cytoplasmic ratio
    B. Division of nuclei without division of cytoplasm
    C. Large, Prominent nuclei
    D. Loss of polarity and disorientation of cells
  151. Which of the following is the most likely (among them) to turn malignant:
    A. Intradermal nevus
    B. Junctional nevus
    C. Lichen planus
    D. Papilloma
  152. Reed-sternberg cells are characteristically seen in:
    A. Alpha-thalassemia
    B. Glandular fever
    C. Hansan’s disease
    D. Hodgkin’s disease
  153. Which of the following produces osteoblastic secondaries:
    A. Carcinoma lung
    B. Carcinoma breast
    C. Carcinoma urinary bladder
    D. Carcinoma prostate
  154. Hereditary hemorrhagic telangiectasia is seen commonly on:
    A. Lips
    B. Buccal mucosa
    C. Tongue
    D. Palate
  155. Which of the following lesions are seen in van recklinghausen’s disease of skin:
    A. Hemangioma
    B. Ameloblastoma
    C. Neurofibroma
    D. Giant cell fibroma
See also  Miscellaneous MCQs - Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery

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