MCQs on Pathology

Pathology Multiple Choice Questions for NEET

1. Process of migration of leukocytes through the endothelium is through:
A. Phagocytosis
B. Pinocytosis
C. Diapedesis
D. Apoptosis

Answer: C

2. Bridging necrosis is characteristically seen in:
A. Acute hepatitis
B. Chronic hepatitis
C. Both of the above
D. None of the above

Answer: C

3. Which of the following would be the best morphological feature to distinguish ulcerative colitis from Crohn’s disease?

A. Diffuse distributions of pseudopolyps
B. Mucosal edema
C. Crypt abscesses
D. Lymphoid aggregates in the mucosa

Answer: A

4. Autosomal recessive polycystic kidney disease is characterised by the altered expression of:

A. Polycystin
B. Nephrocystin
C. Uromodulin
D. Fibrocystin

Answer: D

5. Which is not a tumour suppressor gene ?
A. WT-1
B. Rb
C. p53
D. RAS

Answer: D

6. Michaelis Gutmann bodies are seen in
A. >Xanthogranulomatous
B. >pyelonephritis
C. >Malakoplakia
D. Nail patella syndrome

Answer: C

7. D.I.C. is seen in :
A. >Acute promyelocytic leukemia
B. >Acute myelomonocytic leukemia
C. >CMC
D. >Autoimmune hemolytic anemia

Answer: A

8. Interleukin responsible for Pyrexia is:
A. IL1
B. IL3
C. IL4
D. IL8

Answer: A

9. Liquefactive necrosis is seen in:
A. Heart
B. Brain
C. Lungs
D. Spleen

Answer: B

10. More than 90% patients of CREST syndrome with the limited cutaneous form of this disorder make which of the following autoantibodies?

A. Anti-centromere
B. Anti-DNA topoisomerase l
C. Anti-double-stranded DNA
D. Anti-Golgi

Answer: A

11. 1 to 2 mm haemorrhages in skin are known as:
A. Micro bleed
B. Petechiae
C. Purpura
D. None of the above

Answer: B

12. ‘Flare’ in Triple response is mediated by :
A. Axon reflex
B. Arteriolar dilation
C. Histamine release
D. Local hormones

Answer: A

13. Medial calcification is seen in A. Atherosclerosis
B. Arteriolosclerosis
C. Monckebergs sclerosis
D. Dissecting aneurysm

Answer: C

14. Changes seen in atherosclerotic plaque at the time of rupture are all except

A. Thin fibrosis cap
B. Multiple foam cap
C. Smooth muscle cell hypertrophy
D. Cell debris

Answer: C

15. Atheromatous changes of blood vessels
affects early in A. Kidney
B. Heart
C. Liver
D. Spleen

Answer: B

16. Which of the following is a non-modifiable risk factor for CHD

A. Diabetes
B. Smoking
C. Hypertension
D. Old age

Answer: D

17. Most common cause of dissecting hematoma is because of

A. Hypertension
B. Marfan’s
C. Iatrogenic
D. Kawasaki

Answer: A

18. Cystic medial necrosis is seen in

A. Marfans syndrome
B. Friedrichs ataxia Pattern
C. Downs syndrome
D. Kawasaki disease

Answer: A

19. Small vessel vasculitis are

A. Classical PAN
B. Wegner’s granulomatosis
C. Giant cell arteritis
D. All

Answer: B

20. All is true about Giant cell arteritis except ?
A. Involves large to small sized areteries
B. Granulomatous inflammation
C. Most commonly involved artery is abdominal aorta
D. Segmental nature of the involvement

Answer: C

21. Raynaud’s phenomenon what change is seen in vessels initial stage

A. No change (Fibrinoid, Thrombosis)
B. Thrombosis
C. Fibrinoid necrosis
D. Hyaline sclerosis

Answer: A

22. The tissue of origin of the Kaposi’s sarcoma is ?
A. Lymphoid
B. Vascular
C. Neural
D. Muscular

Answer: B

23. Concentric hypertrophy of left ventricle is seen in

A. Cong. bicuspid aortic valve
B. MS
C. AR
D. HOCM

Answer: A

24. Which one of the following sets of components of cigarette smoke is a causal agent of coronary artery disease

A. Tar and nicotine
B. Nicotine and carbon monoxide and tar
C. Carbon monoxide and Tar
D. Carbon dioxide

Answer: B

25. Earliest histological change in MI

A. Macrophage infiltration
B. Neutrophilic infiltration
C. Waviness of fibers
D. Coagulative necrosis

Answer: C

26. 7 day old MI the most sensitive biochemical marker
A. Troponin I T
B. CPK MB
C. LDH
D. Myoglobin

Answer: A

27. Which is not seen in Aschoff bodies

A. Giant cells
B. Aschoff cells
C. Fibroblasts
D. Polymorphonuclear cells

Answer: D

28. Vegetations in libman sacendocarditis are ?
A. Large and fragile
B. Small warty along the line of closure of valve
C. Small or medium sized on either or both sides of valve
D. Small bland vegetations

Answer: C

29. Causes of constrictive pericarditis is/are ?
A. T.B.
B. SLE
C. Brucellosis
D. a and b
Answer: D

30. Hypertrophy is A. Increase in cell number
B. Increase in cell size
C. Decrease in cell number
D. Decrease in cell size

Answer: B

31. Physiological hyperplasia and hypertrophy are seen simultaneously in

A. Uterus in pregnancy
B. Skeletal muscle in atheleteas
C. Breast at puberty
D. a and c

Answer: D

32. The sign of reversible injury in a case of alcoholic liver disease

A. Loss of cell membrane
B. Nuclear karyolysis
C. Cytoplasmic vacuole
D. Pyknosis

Answer: C

33. In cell death, myelin figures, are derived from

A. Nucleus
B. Cell membrane
C. Cytoplasm
D. Mitochondria

Answer: B

34. Enzyme that protects the brain from free radical injury is

A. Myeloperoxidase
B. Superoxide dismutase
C. MAO
D. Hydroxylase

Answer: B

35. MI is a type of

A. Coagulative necrosis
B. Liquefactive necrosis
C. Caseous necrosis
D. Fat necrosis

Answer: A

36. Fat necrosis is common in

A. Omentum
B. Breast
C. Retroperitoneal fat
D. All of the above

Answer: D

37. Programmed cell death is known as

A. Cytolysis
B. Apoptosis
C. Necrosis
D. Proptosis

Answer: B

38. In apoptosis, cytochrome C acts through

A. Apaf 1
B. Bcl-2
C. FADD
D. TNF

Answer: A

39. Which is activated for nuclear fragmentation in apoptosis

A. Caspases
B. Apaf – 1
C. Oxygen free radicals
D. All

Answer: A

40. In apoptosis which is/are involved

A. Apaf-1
B. Bc12
C. Caspases
D. All

Answer: D

41. Annexin Visa marker of
A. Apoptosis
B. Necrosis
C. Artherosclerosis
D. Inflammation

Answer: A

42. Dystrophic calcification is seen in ?
A. Milk alkali syndrome
B. Atheromatous plaque
C. Hyperparathyroidism
D. Vitamin A intoxication

Answer: B

43. Calcification of soft tissues without any disturbance of calcium metabolism is called

A. Ionotropic calcification
B. Monotropic calcification
C. Dystrophic calcification
D. Calcium induced calcification

Answer: C

44. True about gastric lymphoma

A. Non Hodgkins lymphoma commonest variety
B. Diagnosis is made by biopsy
C. H-Pylori has direct relationship
D. All

Answer: D

45. Most common site of GIST is

A. Ileum
B. Esophagus
C. Colon
D. Stomach

Answer: D

46. Which of the following markers is specific for gastro-intestinal stomal tumor (GIST)

A. CD 117
B. CD 34
C. CD 23
D. S-100

Answer: A

47.Aganglionic segment is encountered in which part of colon in case of Hirschsprung disease ?
A. Distal to dilated segment
B. In Whole colon
C. Proximal to dilated segment
D. In the dilated segment

Answer: A

48. Multiple epidermoid cysts are seen in

A. Turcot’s syndrome
B. Gardner’s syndrome
C. Peutz-Jegher syndrome
D. Familial polyposis coli

Answer: B

49. Features of Peutz-Jeghers syndrome are all except?
A. Autosomal dominant
B. Mucocutaneous pigmentation
C. Hamartomatous polyp
D. High risk of malignacy

Answer: D

50. The features of crohns disease are all except ?
A. Lymphoid hyperplasia
B. Skin lesion
C. Transmural involvement
D. Crypt Abscess

Answer: A

51. Female is affected, male is not. Disease is autosomal dominant, what is the chance in children?
A. 50% affected
B. 25% affected
C. 75% affected
D. All affected

Answer: A

52. Chance of having cystic fibrosis if only one parent is affected and other is normal
A. 25%
B. 50%
C. 70%
D. 80%

Answer: B

53. True statement about inheritance of an X linked recessive trait is

A. 50% of boys of carrier mother are affected
B. 50% of girls of diseased father are carrier
C. Father transmits disease to the son
D. Mother transmits the disease to the daughter

Answer: A

54. Normal female, whose father was colour blind married a normal man. What are the chances of colour blindness in son

A. 25%
B. 50%
C. 75%
D. No chance

Answer: B

55. The inheritance pattern of familial Retinoblastomas is

A. Autosomal recessive
B. Autosomal dominant
C. X-linked dominant
D. X-linked recessive

Answer: B

56. Male to male transmission is seen in

A. Autosomal dominant diseases
B. Autosomal recessive
C. X-linked dominant
D. M itochondrial disease

Answer: A

57. Single gene disorder which does not follow mendelian inheritance

A. Sickle cell anemia
B. Down syndrome
C. Fragile X-syndrome
D. Retinoblastoma

Answer: C

58. Transport of lipids from the intestine to other tissues is by

A. Chylomicrons
B. LDL
C. HDL
D. VI DL

Answer: A

59. Which is not a feature of Downs syndrome
A. Clinodactyly
B. Pigmented birth marks
C. Hypotonia
D. Respiratory tract Infections

Answer: B

60. Following injury to a blood vessel, immediate haemostasis is achieved by

A. Fibrin deposition
B. Vasoconstriction
C. Platelet adhesion
D. Thrombosis

Answer: B

61. Lines of Zahn occur in

A. Postmortem clot
B. Infarct
C. Embolus
D. Coralline thrombus

Answer: D

62. Anemia with reticulocytosis is seen in

A. Hemolysis
B. Iron deficiency anemia
C. Vitamin B12 deficiency
D. Aplastic anemia

Answer: A

63. Intravascular hemolysis occurs in

A. Hereditary spherocytosis
B. Acute G6PD
C. Sickle cell ds
D. b and c

Answer: D

64. Maximum spherocytes is seen in

A. Autoimmune haemolytic anemia
B. Vit B12 deficiency
C. Aplastic anemia
D. None

Answer: A

65. The primary defect which leads to sickle cell anemia is

A. An abnormality in porphyrin part of hemoglobin
B. Replacement of glutamate by valine in n-chain of HbA
C. A nonsence mutation in the I3-chain of HbA
D. Substitution of valine by glutamate in the a-chain of HbA

Answer: B

66. Which is not a feature of paroxysmal nocturnal haemoglobinuria

A. Increased LAP score
B. Thrombosis
C. Thrombocytopenia
D. Hemolysis

Answer: A

67. Cold agglutinin is

A. IgG
B. IgM
C. IgA
D. IgD

Answer: B

68. Response to iron in iron deficiency anaemia is denoted by

A. Restoration of enzymes
B. Reticulocytosis
C. Increase in iron binding capacity
D. Increase in hemoglobin

Answer: B

69. Megaloblastic anemia is seen in ?
A. ileal resection
B. Crohn’s disease
C. Intestinal lymphatic ectasia
D. a and b

Answer: D

70. The anaemia associated with leukaemia is ?
A. Iron deficiency
B. Megaloblastic type
C. Myelophthisic type
D. All of above

Answer: C

71. Schistocyte is/are found in

A. TTP
B. DIC
C. Severe iron deficiency
D. All

Answer: D

72. Helmet cells are characteristic of anemia of?
A. Hemolytic uremic syndrome
B. Polysplenia
C. Spherocytosis
D. Acanthocytosis

Answer: A

73. Gamma gandy bodies are seen in all except ?
A. Cirrhosis with portal hypertension
B. Chronic myeloid leukemia
C. Sickle cell anemia
D. Thalassemia

Answer: D

74. Increased permeability in acute inflammation is due to

A. Histamine
B. IL-2
C. TGF-P
D. FGF

Answer: A

75. which of the following does not belong to the family of selectin?
A. P selectin
B. L selectin
C. A selectin
D. E selectin

Answer: C

76. Cell-matrix adhesions are mediated by?
A. Cadherins
B. Integrins
C. Selectins
D. Calmodulin

Answer: B

78. Maximum collagen in wound healing is seen at

A. End of first week
B. End of second week
C. End of third week
D. End of 2 months

Answer: B

79. Chemotaxis is mediated by

A. Histamine
B. Leukotriene B4 and C5a
C. Leukotriene C4 and C3a
D. Bradykinin

Answer: B

80. Following injection of lymphokines, the same class of immunoglobulin are produced. This is to be referred as

A. Group switching
B. Clonal selection
C. Hybridisation
D. Class switching

Answer: B

81. Most potent stimulator of Naïve T-cells

A. Mature dentritic cells
B. Follicular dentritic cells
C. Macrophages
D. B-cell

Answer: A

82. True about MHC-class II

A. Not involved in innate immunity
B. Cytotoxic T-cell involved
C. Present in nucleated cells
D. All

Answer: A

83. Common variable hypogammaglobulinemia shows ?
A. Decreased B cell count
B. Increased B cell count
C. Compliment opsinization
D. Neutropenia

Answer: C

84. Major fibril protein in Primary Amyloidosis is

A. AL
B. AA
C. Transthyretin
D. Procalcitonin

Answer: A

85. Which type of Amyloidosis is caused by mutation of the transthyretin protein ?
A. Familial Mediterranean fever
B. Familial amyloidotic polyneuropathy
C. Dialysis associated amyloidosis
D. Prion protein associated amyloidosis

Answer: B

86. Amyloidosis is most commonly seen in ?
A. Maturity onset DM
B. Type I DM
C. Type II DM
D. HTN

Answer: C

87. Serum amyloid associated protein, found in ?
A. Alzheimer’s disease
B. Chronic inflammatory states
C. Chronic renal failure
D. Malignant hypertension

Answer: B

88. Hamartoma is

A. Malignant tumor
B. Metastatic tissue
C. Development malformation
D. Hemorrhage in vessel

Answer: C

89. Overgrowth of a skin structure at a localised region

A. Hamartoma
B. Malignant tumor
C. Choriostoma
D. All

Answer: A

90. Excessive fibrosis in tumor in called

A. Anaplasia
B. Metaplasia
C. Desmoplasia
D. Dysplasia

Answer: C

91. When stem cells transforms to form cells characteristic of other tissues, the process is called as

A. De-differentiation
B. Re-differentiation
C. Trans-differentiation
D. Sub-differentiation

Answer: C

92. Carcinoma of lung, breast marker is

A. CEA
B. AFP
C. 11CG
D. CA-15-3

Answer: A

93. AFP is raised in

A. Yolk sac tumor
B. Seminoma
C. Teratoma
D. a and c

Answer: D

94. Elevated CA-125 are seen in

A. Abdominal TB
B. Ca cervix
C. Endometriosis
D. All

Answer: D

95. The tumor suppressor gene P53 induces cell arrest at

A. M phase
B. S – G2 phase
C. G1 – S phase
D. Go – phase

Answer: C

96. Major contribution to cachexia with advanced cancer?
A. Catherin
B. Histamine
C. Interferon
D. Tumour-necrosis-factor (TNF)

Answer: D

97.Hemolytic Uremic Syndrome is characterized by ?

A. Microangiopathic haemolytic anaemia
B. Positive Coomb’s test
C. Thrombocytopenia
D. a and c

Answer: D

98. All are features of haemolytic uremic syndrome, except

A. Hyperkalaemia
B. Anaemia
C. Renal microthrombi
D. Neuro psychiatric disturbances

Answer: D

99. In DIC, following are seen except

A. Fibrinogen decreased
B. Thrombocytopenia
C. Normal APTT
D. PT elevation

Answer: C

100. Shelf life of blood with CPDA A. 2 weeks
B. 3 weeks
C. 5 weeks
D. 8 weeks

Answer: C

101. Which of the following is not true about idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura?
A. Antibodies of IgM class
B. Autoantibodies to Gp IIb/ Ilia or IB IX
C. Increased megakaryocytes in bone marrow
D. Spleen is normal in size

Answer: A

102. Macrophage activation syndrome characterized by all except ?
A. Activation of CD 8 + T cells
B. Presence of cytokine storm
C. It is the other name for hemophagocytic lymph histiocytosis
D. Low levels of plasma ferretin

Answer: D

103. HLA associated with rheumatoid arthritis is ?
A. HLA B27
B. HLA DR 4
C. HLABI9
D. HLA DR2

Answer: B

104. Hepatitis B associated with ?
A. Wegener’s granulomatosis
B. Systemic lupus erythematosus
C. Polyarteritis nodosa
D. Sjogren syndrome

Answer: C

105. Normal upper limit of CA – 125 is ?
A. 25 U/ ml
B. 45 U/ ml
C. 65 U/ ml
D. 85 U/ ml

Answer: A

106. Which of the following interleukin is secreted by T helper 2 cells?
A. IL 11
B. IL 7
C. IL 1
D. IL 13

Answer: D

107. Atopy in hypersensitivity is ?
A. Systemic type I hypersensitivity
B. Local type I hypersensitivity
C. Systemic type II hypersensitivity
D. Local type II hypersensitivity

Answer: B

108. Inheritance pattern of myotonic
dystrophy is ?
A. Autosomal recessive
B. Autosomal dominant
C. X linked dominant
D. X linked recessive

Answer: B

109. Gene responsible for Wilson disease is situated on which chromosome?
A. Chromosome 11
B. Chromosome 12
C. Chromosome 13
D. Chromosome 14

Answer: C

110. Antischkow cells are ?
A. Modified macrophages
B. Modified neutrophils
C. Modified B cells
D. Modified RBCs

Answer: A

111. Patient with chronic hypertension will show fol​lowing changes on histology of kidney
A. Hyaline arteriosclerosis
B. Hyperplastic arteriosclerosis
C. Onion skin lesions
D. Vessel lumen dilatation

Answer: A

112. NK cell shows presence of ?
A. CD 44
B. CD 16
C. CD 54
D. CD 32

Answer: B

113. Non professional antigen presenting cell is A/E ?
A. Endothelial cell
B. Epidermal cell
C. Fibroblasts
D. Red blood cells

Answer: D

114. Blood is stored at what temperature in blood bank?
A. -2 to -4 degrees Celsius
B. -2 to 0 degrees Celsius
C. 1 to 6 degrees Celsius
D. 6 to 12 degrees Celsius

Answer: C

115. Birbeck granules in cytoplasm is seen in ?
A. Langerhans cell histiocytosis
B. Hodgkin’s lymphoma
C. Non hodgkins lymphoma
D. Gastrointestinal stromal tumor

Answer: A

116. Reticulocytes are stained by ?
A. Supravital stain
B. Purssian blue stain
C. H and E stain
D. Reticulin stain

Answer: A

117. Most common type of Hodgkin’s lymphoma is ?
A. Lymphocyte predominant
B. Lymphocyte depletion
C. Nodular sclerosis
D. Mixed cellularity

Answer: C

118. Most common site for eosinophilic granuloma is?
A. Radius
B. Skull
C. Lumbar vertebra
D. Femur

Answer: B

119. Replacement of columnar epithelium in respiratory tract to squamous epithelium is ?
A. Hyperplasia
B. Hypoplasia
C. Metaplasia
D. None of the above

Answer: C

120. Which is the best marker of SLE ?
A. Anti Sm antibodies
B. Anti dsDNA antibodies
C. Anti histone antibodies
D. Anti Ro Antibodies

Answer: B

121. Most common cause of death in amyloidosis is ?
A. Heart failure
B. Renal failure
C. Sepsis
D. None

Answer: A

122. What is true about ulcerative colitis ?
A. Involves rectum and then whole colon backwards
B. Involves only colon
C. Skip lesions seen
D. Ileum not involved

Answer: A

123. Execution caspases of apoptosis are ?
A. Caspase 1 & 3
B. Caspase 3 & 5
C. Caspase 1 & 5
D. Caspase 3 & 7

Answer: D

124. Neurofibromatosis shows which of the following mode of inheritance ?
A. AD
B. AR
C. X linked dominant
D. X linked recessive

Answer: A

125. Most common site of glomus tumor is ?
A. Under fingernails
B. Under toenails
C. Neck
D. Axilla

Answer: A

126. Normal reticulocyte count in new-born is

A. 0 – 1%
B. 1 – 1.5%
C. 3 – 6%
D. 6 – 9 %

Answer: C

127. BRCA2 not associated with
A. breast cancer
B. Prostate cancer
C. Ovarian cancer
D. Vulval cancer

Answer: D

128. Which of the following is not a large vessel vasculitiis ?
A. Takayasu arteritis
B. Cogan syndrome
C. Chrug strauss syndrome
D. Giant cell arteritis

Answer: C

129. Trauma to breast causes which type of necrosis ?
A. Coagualtive necrosis
B. Liquefactive necrosis
C. Caseous necrosis
D. Fat necrosis

Answer: D

130. Inhibin is tumor marker for ?
A. Granulosa cell tumor
B. Malignant melanoma
C. Prolactinoma
D. Breast carcinoma

Answer: A

131. Following statement is true for haemophilia patients?
A. All Females are carriers and all males are affected
B. All Males are carriers and all females are affected
C. Females are mostly carriers and all males are affected
D. Males are mostly carriers and all females are affected

Answer: C

132. Which worm causes myocarditis ?
A. Trichuris
B. Trichinella
C. Enterobius
D. Strogyloides

Answer: B

133. Giant platelets are seen in ?
A. Bernard soulier syndrome
B. vWD
C. Polycythemia rubra vera
D. Leukemia

Answer: A

134. LE cell is seen in ?
A. Lupus erythmatosus
B. Lupus vulgaris
C. HNPCC
D. Medullary carcinoma of thyroid

Answer: A

135. Pelger Huet anamoly shows presence of ?
A. Hyposegmented neutrophil
B. Hypersegmented neutrophil
C. Unsegmented neutrophil
D. None of the above

Answer: A

136. Sentinel lymph node biopsy is used for ?
A. Melanoma
B. Basal cell carcinoma
C. Squamous cell carcionoma
D. Thyroid carcinoma

Answer: A

137. Interleukin 2 is produced by
A. T helper cells 1
B. T helper cells 2
C. Natural killer cells
D. Basophils

Answer: A

138. Popcorn cells are seen in which variety of Hodgkin’s disease ?
A. Nodular sclerosis
B. Mixed cellularity
C. Lymphocyte predominant
D. Lymphocyte depletion

Answer: C

139. Shape of birbeck granules is ?
A. Tennis racket
B. Hockey stick
C. Bat
D. Ball

Answer: A

140. Lipid peroxidation of polyunsaturated lipids of subcellular membranes produces ?
A. Lipofuscin
B. Hemosiderin
C. Both of above
D. None of above

Answer: A

141. Paraneoplastic syndrome Hypercalcemia of malignancy, is produced due to ectopic production of which hormone by lymphomas ?
A. PTHrP
B. 1,25 dihydroxyvitamin D
C. PGE2
D. Parathormone

Answer: B

142. HLA B51 is associated with ?
A. Behcet’s disease
B. Chrug strauss syndrome
C. Microscopic polyangitis
D. Polyarteritis nodosa

Answer: A

143. PT is used to test ?
A. Extrinsic and common pathway
B. Intrinsic and common pathway
C. Intrinsic pathway
D. Extrinsic pathwa

Answer: A

144. Which of the following is not a hereditary disease?
A. Neurofibromatosis
B. Cretinism
C. Huntingtons disease
D. Hereditary spherocytosis

Answer: B

145. Point mutaton in which protooncogene is responsible for the development of gastrointestinal stromal tumour
A. KIT
B. ALK
C. RET
D. FLT3

Answer: A

146. Carcinoembryonic antigen is raised in which of the following non neoplastic conditions

A. Hepatitis
B. Pancreatitis
C. Haemolytic anaemia
D. Ulcerative colitis

Answer: B

147. Under Blood safety programme compulsory tests done are all except ?
A. HIV
B. VDRL
C. Malaria
D. Hepatitis E

Answer: D

148. EBV receptor mimics ?
A. CD 20
B. CD 21
C. CD 22
D. CD 23

Answer: B

149. Leukocyte adhesion to endothelium is mediated by all except ?
A. L selectin
B. E selectin
C. VCAM 1
D. VCAM 4

Answer: D

150. Boys are more likely to be affected by which genetic disorders ?
A. AD
B. AR
C. X linked dominant
D. X linked recessive

Answer: D

151. Inceased accumulation of fluid in the interstitial space is described as ?
A. Edema
B. Effusion
C. Transudate
D. Exudate

Answer: A

152. Classic example of missense mutation ?
A. Thalassemia
B. Sickle cell disease
C. Sideroblastic anemia
D. Hemochromatosis

Answer: B

153. Matrix metalloproteinases is ?
A. Cathepsin
B. Zn metalloproteinases
C. Cu metalloproteinases
D. Cd metalloproteinases

Answer: A

154. Tau protein seen in ?
A. Alzhiemer’s disease
B. Lewy body dementia
C. Picks disease
D. Amylodosis

Answer: A

155. The phenomenon by which the cancer cells are able to sustain and proliferate under adverse conditions of hypoxia is ?
A. Warburg
B. Wanton
C. Wormian
D. Wolf

Answer: A

156. Defect of Glanzmann’s thrombasthenia is ?
A. Gp1Ib-IlIa
B. GpIIIa-I lb
C. GpIla-Illb
D. Gpfilb-I la

Answer: A

157. Metastatic calcification is characterized by ?
A. Hypercalcemia
B. Hypocalcemia
C. Eucalcemia
D. None of the above

Answer: A

158. Most important growth factors in angiogenesis ?
A. PDGF
B. TGF alpha
C. TGF beta
D. VEGF

Answer: D

159. Necrosis with cell bodies retained as ghost cells is ?
A. Coagulative necrosis
B. Liquefactive
C. Caseous
D. None

Answer: A

160. Cells responsible for GVHD is ?
A. Immunocompetent T cell donor
B. Immunocompetent T Cell recipient
C. Immunocompetent B cell donor
D. Immunocompetent B cell donor

Answer: A

161. Flow cytometry is done on
A. Polycythaemia
B. Thrombocytosis
C. Basophil
D. Lymphocytes

Answer: D

162. Person having heterozygous sickle cell trait is protected from infection of:
A. P. falciparum
B. P. vivax
C. Pneumococcus
D. Salmonella

Answer: A

163. Sequence of events in acute inflammation ?
A. Vasodilatation → Stasis → Transient vasoconstriction → Increased permeability
B. Transient vasoconstriction → Stasis → Vasodilatation → Increased permeability
C. Transient vasoconstriction → Vasodilatation → Stasis → Increased permeability

D. Transient vasoconstriction →Vasodilatation → Increased permeability → Stasis

Answer: D

164. Gene silencing RNA ?
A. rRNA
B. tRNA
C. miRNA
D. None

Answer: C

165. All are obstructive lung disease except

A. Emphysema
B. Interstitial fibrosis
C. Asthma
D. Bronchitis

Answer: B

166.Centrilobular necrosis of liver may be seen with?

A. Phosphorus
B. Arsenic
C. CCI4
D. Ethanol

Answer: C

167. During angiogenesis recruitment of pericytes and periendothelial cells is due to
A. VEGF & PDGF
B. Angiopoietins, TGF & PDGF
C. TGF, VEFG & PDGF
D. VEGF, IL-6

Answer: B

168. Heart failure cells are ?
A. Lipofuscin granules in cardiac cells
B. Pigmented alveolar macrophages
C. Pigmented pancreatic acinar cells
D. Pigment cells seen in liver

Answer: B

169. All are true about Polycythaemia vera except
A. Increased vit B12
B. Decrease LAP score
C. Leucocytosis
D. Increased platelets

Answer: B

170. Intracorpuscular hemolytic anemia is seen in ?
A. Autoimmune hemolytic anemia
B. TIP
C. Thalassemia
D. Infection

Answer: C

171. Gilbert syndrome, true all except ?
A. Causes cirrhosis
B. Autosomal dominant
C. Normal liver function test
D. Normal histology

Answer: A

172. Flexner-Winter Steiner rosette is seen in

A. Hepatoblastoma
B. Nephroblastoma
C. Neuroblastoma
D. Retinoblastoma

Answer: D

173. Band test is done in ?
A. RA
B. SLE
C. Scleroderma
D. PAN

Answer: B

174. Angelman syndrome is due to

A. Digenic inheritance
B. Inversion
C. Uniparental disomy
D. Mitochondrial disorder

Answer: C

175. Organelle where H202 is produced and destroyed is?
A. Peroxisome
B. Lysosome
C. Golgi body
D. Ribosome

Answer: A

176. Increased permeability in acute inflammation is due to?
A. Histamine
B. IL-2
C. TGF-(3
D. FGF

Answer: A

177. Not true about hereditary spherocytosis
A. Defect in ankyrin
B. Decreased MCV
C. Decreased MCHC
D. Reticulocytosis

Answer: C

178. Mantle cell lymphomas are positive for all of the following, except ?
A. CD 23
B. CD 20
C. CD 5
D. CD 43

Answer: A

179. Gastric carcinoma is associated with all EXCEPT ?
A. Inactivation of p53
B. Over expression of C-erb
C. Over expression of C-met
D. Activation of RAS

Answer: D

180. Irreversible injury in myocardium occurs at ?
A. 2 minutes
B. 30 minutes
C. 2 hours
D. 5 hours

Answer: B

181. Bone marrow finding in myelofibrosis ?
A. Dry tap (hypocellular)
B. Megaloblastic cells
C. Microcytic cells
D. Thrombocytosis18

Answer: A

182. Schiller- Duval bodies is seen in
A. Choriocarcinoma
B. Embryonal cell Ca
C. Endodermal sinus tumour
D. Immature teratoma

Answer: C

183. A/E are involved in MEN type II A ?
A. Parathyroid
B. Adrenal
C. Thyroid
D. Pituitary

Answer: D

184. All are good prognostic factors for neuroblastoma except

A. Trk-A expression absent
B. Absence of 1 p loss
C. Absence of 17 p gain
D. Absence of 11 q loss

Answer: A

185. Eosinophilia in necrosed tissue is due to
A. Coagulation of proteins
B. Denaturation of enzymes
C. Denaturation of protein
D. Mitochondrial damage

Answer: C

186. Macrophages are converted to epithelioid cells by which cytokine ?
A. IL-2
B. IFN-y
C. TNF-a
D. TGF-(3

Answer: B

187. The professional antigen presenting cells ?
A. B cells
B. Dendritic cells
C. T cells
D. NK cells

Answer: B

188. All are growth promoting oncogenes except ?
A. FGF
B. TGF-a
C. TGF-p
D. PDGF

Answer: C

189. Hyperplastic arteriolitis with nerotizing arteriolitis is seen in ?
A. Buerger’s disease
B. Benign hypertension
C. Malignant hypertension
D. Diabetes

Answer: C

190. Fibrosis is due to ?
A. TGF

B. TNF

C. IL – 7
D. IL – 10

Answer: A

191. In sickle cell anemia all are true except

A. Sickle cells
B. Target cells
C. Howell jolly bodies
D. Ringed sideroblast

Answer: D

192. Linitis plastica is a type of ?
A. Plastic like lining of stomach
B. Diffuse carcinoma of stomach
C. Benign ulcer
D. GIST

Answer: B

193. Microvesicular fatty liver is caused by ?
A. DM
B. Valproate
C. Starvation
D. IBD

Answer: B

194. Localised langerhans cells histiocytosis affecting head & neck is ?
A. Letterer-siwe disease
B. Pulmonary langerhans cell histiocytosis
C. Hand-schuller-christian disease
D. Eosinophilic granuloma

Answer: D

195. Which cytokine activate macrophages ?
A. IL-8
B. IFN-y
C. PAF
D. Leukotriene B4

Answer: B
.

196. Syphilitic aneurysm mostly involve ?
A. Arch of aorta
B. Descending aorta
C. Abdominal aorta above the renal arteries
D. Abdominal aorta below the renal arteries

Answer: A

197. Hurthle cell carcinoma is a variant of ?
A. Medullary carcinoma
B. Papillary carcinoma
C. Follicular carcinoma
D. Anaplastic carcinoma

Answer: C

198. HLA is located on ?
A. Short arm of chr-6
B. Long arm of chr-6
C. Short arm of chr-3
D. Long arm of chr-3

Answer: A

199.Classification of aortic dissection depends upon?
A. Cause of dissection
B. Level of aorta affected
C. Percentage of aorta affected
D. None

Answer: B

200. Thalassemia gives protection against ?
A. Filaria
B. Kala-azar
C. Malaria
D. Leptospirosis

Answer: C

201. Maltoma is positive for?
A. CD 3
B. CD 10
C. CD 23
D. CD 5

Answer: C

202. Terminal stage of pneumonia is
A. Congestion
B. Red hepatization
C. Gray hepatization
D. Resolution

Answer: D

203. Intestinal angiodysplasia involves ?
A. AV malformation
B. Cavernous hemangioma
C. Capillary hemangioma
D. Malignant tumor

Answer: A

204. Hepatitis B associated with ?
A. Wegener’s granulomatosis
B. Systemic lupus erythmatosus
C. Polyarteritis nodosa
D. Sjogren syndrome

Answer: C

205. Normal upper limit of CA – 125 is ?
A. 25 U/ ml
B. 45 U/ ml
C. 65 U/ ml
D. 85 U/ ml

Answer: A

206. Which of the following interleukin is secreted by T helper 2 cells?
A. IL 11
B. IL 7
C. IL 1
D. IL 13

Answer: D

207. Atopy in hypersensitivity is ?
A. Systemic type I hypersensitivity
B. Local type I hypersensitivity
C. Systemic type II hypersensitivity
D. Local type II hypersensitivity

Answer: B

208. Inheritance pattern of myotonic dystrophy is ?
A. Autosomal recessive
B. Autosomal dominant
C. X linked dominant
D. X linked recessive

Answer: B

209. Gene responsible for Wilson disease is situated on which chromosome?
A. Chromosome 11
B. Chromosome 12
C. Chromosome 13
D. Chromosome 14

Answer: C

210. Antischkow cells are ?
A. Modified macrophages
B. Modified neutrophils
C. Modified B cells
D. Modified RBCs

Answer: A

211. Patient with chronic hypertension will show fol​lowing changes on histology of kidney
A. Hyaline arteriosclerosis
B. Hyperplastic arteriosclerosis
C. Onion skin lesions
D. Vessel lumen dilatation

Answer: A

212. NK cell shows presence of ?
A. CD 44
B. CD 16
C. CD 54
D. CD 32

Answer: B

213. Non professional antigen presenting cell is A/E ?
A. Endothelial cell
B. Epidermal cell
C. Fibroblasts
D. Red blood cells

Answer: D

214. Blood is stored at what temperature in blood bank?
A. -2 to -4 degrees Celsius
B. -2 to 0 degrees Celsius
C. 1 to 6 degrees Celsius
D. 6 to 12 degrees Celsius

Answer: C

215. Birbeck granules in cytoplasm is seen in ?
A. Langerhans cell histiocytosis
B. Hodgkin’s lymphoma
C. Non hodgkins lymphoma
D. Gastrointestinal stromal tumor

Answer: A

216. Reticulocytes are stained by ?
A. Supravital stain
B. Purssian blue stain
C. H and E stain
D. Reticulin stain

Answer: A

217. Most common type of hodgkins lymphoma is ?
A. Lymphocyte predominant
B. Lymphocyte depletion
C. Nodular sclerosis
D. Mixed cellularity

Answer: C

218. Most common site for eosinophilic granuloma is?
A. Radius
B. Skull
C. Lumbar vertebra
D. Femur

Answer: B

219. Replacement of columnar epithelium in respiratory tract to squamous epithelium is ?
A. Hyperplasia
B. Hypoplasia
C. Metaplasia
D. None of the above

Answer: C

220. Which is the best marker of SLE ?
A. Anti Sm antibodies
B. Anti dsDNA antibodies
C. Anti histone antibodies
D. Anti Ro Antibodies

Answer: B

221. Most common cause of death in amyloidosis is ?
A. Heart failure
B. Renal failure
C. Sepsis
D. None

Answer: A

222. What is true about ulcerative colitis ?
A. Involves rectum and then whole colon backwards
B. Involves only colon
C. Skip lesions seen
D. Ileum not involved

Answer: A

223. Execution caspases of apoptosis are ?
A. Caspase 1 & 3
B. Caspase 3 & 5
C. Caspase 1 & 5
D. Caspase 3 & 7

Answer: D

224. Neurofibromatosis shows which of the following mode of inheritance ?
A. AD
B. AR
C. X linked dominant
D. X linked recessive

Answer: A

225. Most common site of glomus tumor is ?
A. Under fingernails
B. Under toenails
C. Neck
D. Axilla

Answer: A

226. Normal reticulocyte count in newborn is

A. 0 – 1%
B. 1 – 1.5%
C. 3 – 6%
D. 6 – 9 %

Answer: C

227. BRCA2 not associated with
A. breast cancer
B. Prostate cancer
C. Ovarian cancer
D. Vulval cancer

Answer: D

228. Which of the following is not a large vessel vasculitiis ?
A. Takayasu arteritis
B. Cogan syndrome
C. Chrug strauss syndrome
D. Giant cell arteritis

Answer: C

229. Trauma to breast causes which type of necrosis ?
A. Coagualtive necrosis
B. Liquefactive necrosis
C. Caseous necrosis
D. Fat necrosis

Answer: D

230. Inhibin is tumor marker for ?
A. Granulosa cell tumor
B. Malignant melanoma
C. Prolactinoma
D. Breast carcinoma

Answer: A

231. Following statement is true for hemophilia patients?
A. All Females are carriers and all males are affected
B. All Males are carriers and all females are affected
C. Females are mostly carriers and all males are affected
D. Males are mostly carriers and all females are affected

Answer: C

232. Which worm causes myocarditis ?
A. Trichuris
B. Trichinella
C. Enterobius
D. Strogyloides

Answer: B

233. Giant platelets are seen in ?
A. Bernard soulier syndrome
B. vWD
C. Polycythemia rubra vera
D. Leukemia

Answer: A

234. LE cell is seen in ?
A. Lupus erythmatosus
B. Lupus vulgaris
C. HNPCC
D. Medullary carcinoma of thyroid

Answer: A

235. Pelger Huet anamoly shows presence of ?
A. Hyposegmented neutrophil
B. Hypersegmented neutrophil
C. Unsegmented neutrophil
D. None of the above

Answer: A

236. Sentinel lymph node biopsy is used for ?
A. Melanoma
B. Basal cell carcinoma
C. Squamous cell carcionoma
D. Thyroid carcinoma

Answer: A

237. Interleukin 2 is produced by
A. T helper cells 1
B. T helper cells 2
C. Natural killer cells
D. Basophils

Answer: A

238. Popcorn cells are seen in which variety of hodgkin’s disease ?
A. Nodular sclerosis
B. Mixed cellularity
C. Lymphocyte predominant
D. Lymphocyte depletion

Answer: C

239. Shape of birbeck granules is ?
A. Tennis racket
B. Hockey stick
C. Bat
D. Ball

Answer: A

240. Lipid peroxidation of polyunsaturated lipids of subcellular membranes produces ?
A. Lipofuscin
B. Hemosiderin
C. Both of above
D. None of above

Answer: A

241. Paraneoplastic syndrome Hypercalcemia of malignancy, is produced due to ectopic production of which hormone by lymphomas ?
A. PTHrP
B. 1,25 dihydroxyvitamin D
C. PGE2
D. Parathormone

Answer: B

242. HLA B51 is associated with ?
A. Behcet’s disease
B. Chrug strauss syndrome
C. Microscopic polyangitis
D. Polyarteritis nodosa

Answer: A

243. PT is used to test ?
A. Extrinsic and common pathway
B. Intrinsic and common pathway
C. Intrinsic pathway
D. Extrinsic pathwa

Answer: A

244. Which of the following is not a hereditary disease?
A. Neurofibromatosis
B. Cretinism
C. Huntingtons disease
D. Hereditary spherocytosis

Answer: B

245. Point mutaton in which protooncogene is responsible for the development of gastrointestinal stromal tumor
A. KIT
B. ALK
C. RET
D. FLT3

Answer: A

246. Carcinoembryonic antigen is raised in which of the following non neoplastic conditions

A. Hepatitis
B. Pancreatitis
C. Hemolytic anemia
D. Ulcerative colitis

Answer: B

247. Under Blood safety programme compulsory tests done are all except ?
A. HIV
B. VDRL
C. Malaria
D. Hepatitis E

Answer: D

248. EBV receptor mimics ?
A. CD 20
B. CD 21
C. CD 22
D. CD 23

Answer: B

249. Leukocyte adhesion to endothelium is mediated by all except ?
A. L selectin
B. E selectin
C. VCAM 1
D. VCAM 4

Answer: D

250. Boys are more likely to be affected by which genetic disorders ?
A. AD
B. AR
C. X linked dominant
D. X linked recessive

Answer: D

251. Inceased accumulation of fluid in the interstitial space is described as ?
A. Edema
B. Effusion
C. Transudate
D. Exudate

Answer: A

252. Classic example of missense mutation ?
A. Thalassemia
B. Sickle cell disease
C. Sideroblastic anemia
D. Hemochromatosis

Answer: B

253. Matrix metalloproteinases is ?
A. Cathepsin
B. Zn metalloproteinases
C. Cu metalloproteinases
D. Cd metalloproteinases

Answer: A

254. Tau protein seen in ?
A. Alzhiemer’s disease
B. Lewy body dementia
C. Picks disease
D. Amylodosis

Answer: A

255. The phenomenon by which the cancer cells are able to sustain and proliferate under adverse conditions of hypoxia is ?
A. Warburg
B. Wanton
C. Wormian
D. Wolf

Answer: A

256. Defect of glanzmann’s thrombosthenia is ?
A. Gp1Ib-IlIa
B. GpIIIa-I lb
C. GpIla-Illb
D. Gpfilb-I la

Answer: A

257. Metastatic calcification is characterized by ?
A. Hypercalcemia
B. Hypocalcemia
C. Eucalcemia
D. None of the above

Answer: A

258. Most important growth factors in angiogenesis ?
A. PDGF
B. TGF alpha
C. TGF beta
D. VEGF

Answer: D

259. Necrosis with cell bodies retained as ghost cells is ?
A. Coagulative necrosis
B. Liquefactive
C. Caseous
D. None

Answer: A

260. Cells responsible for GVHD is ?
A. Immunocompetent T cell donor
B. Immunocompetent T Cell recipient
C. Immunocompetent B cell donor
D. Immunocompetent B cell donor

Answer: A

261. Flow cytometry is done on
A. Polycythemia
B. Thrombocytosis
C. Basophil
D. Lymphocytes

Answer: D

262. Person having heterozygous sickle cell trait is protected from infection of:
A. P. falciparum
B. P. vivax
C. Pneumococcus
D. Salmonella

Answer: A

263. Sequence of events in acute inflammation ?
A. Vasodilatation → Stasis → Transient vasoconstriction → Increased permeability
B. Transient vasoconstriction → Stasis → Vasodilatation → Increased permeability
C. Transient vasoconstriction → Vasodilatation → Stasis → Increased permeability

D. Transient vasoconstriction →Vasodilatation → Increased permeability → Stasis

Answer: D

264. Gene silencing RNA ?
A. rRNA
B. tRNA
C. miRNA
D. None

Answer: C

265. All are obstructive lung disease except

A. Emphysema
B. Interstitial fibrosis
C. Asthma
D. Bronchitis

Answer: B

266.Centrilobular necrosis of liver may be seen with?

A. Phosphorus
B. Arsenic
C. CCI4
D. Ethanol

Answer: C

267. During angiogenesis recruitment of pericytes and periendothelial cells is due to
A. VEGF & PDGF
B. Angiopoietins, TGF & PDGF
C. TGF, VEFG & PDGF
D. VEGF, IL-6

Answer: B

268. Heart failure cells are ?
A. Lipofuscin granules in cardiac cells
B. Pigmented alveolar macrophages
C. Pigmented pancreatic acinar cells
D. Pigment cells seen in liver

Answer: B

269. All are true about Polycythemia vera except
A. Increased vit B12
B. Decrease LAP score
C. Leucocytosis
D. Increased platelets

Answer: B

270. Intracorpuscular hemolytic anemia is seen in ?
A. Autoimmune hemolytic anemia
B. TIP
C. Thalassemia
D. Infection

Answer: C

271. Gilbert syndrome, true all except ?
A. Causes cirrhosis
B. Autosomal dominant
C. Normal liver function test
D. Normal histology

Answer: A

272. Flexner-Wintersteiner rossette is seen in

A. Hepatoblastoma
B. Nephroblastoma
C. Neuroblastoma
D. Retinoblastoma

Answer: D

273. Band test is done in ?
A. RA
B. SLE
C. Scleroderma
D. PAN

Answer: B

274. Angelman syndrome is due to

A. Digenic inheritence
B. Inversion
C. Uniparental disomy
D. Mitochondrial disorder

Answer: C

275. Organelle where H202 is produced and destroyed is?
A. Peroxisome
B. Lysosome
C. Golgi body
D. Ribosome

Answer: A

276. Increased permeability in acute inflammation is due to?
A. Histamine
B. IL-2
C. TGF-(3
D. FGF

Answer: A

277. Not true about hereditary spherocytosis
A. Defect in ankyrin
B. Decreased MCV
C. Decreased MCHC
D. Reticulocytosis

Answer: C

278. Mantle cell lymphomas are positive for all of the following, except ?
A. CD 23
B. CD 20
C. CD 5
D. CD 43

Answer: A

279. Gastric carcinoma is associated with all EXCEPT ?
A. Inactivation of p53
B. Over expression of C-erb
C. Over expression of C-met
D. Activation of RAS

Answer: D

280. Irreversible injury in myocardium occurs at ?
A. 2 minutes
B. 30 minutes
C. 2 hours
D. 5 hours

Answer: B

281. Bone marrow finding in myelofibrosis ?
A. Dry tap (hypocellular)
B. Megaloblastic cells
C. Microcytic cells
D. Thrombocytosis18

Answer: A

282. Schiller- Duval bodies is seen in
A. Choriocarcinoma
B. Embryonal cell Ca
C. Endodermal sinus tumour
D. Immature teratoma

Answer: C

283. A/E are involved in MEN type II A ?
A. Parathyroid
B. Adrenal
C. Thyroid
D. Pituitary

Answer: D

284. All are good prognostic factors for neuroblastoma except

A. Trk-A expression absent
B. Absence of 1 p loss
C. Absence of 17 p gain
D. Absence of 11 q loss

Answer: A

285. Eosinophilia in necrosed tissue is due to
A. Coagulation of proteins
B. Denaturation of enzymes
C. Denaturation of protein
D. Mitochondrial damage

Answer: C

286. Macrophages are converted to epitheloid cells by which cytokine ?
A. IL-2
B. IFN-y
C. TNF-a
D. TGF-(3

Answer: B

287. The professional antigen presenting cells ?
A. B cells
B. Dendritic cells
C. T cells
D. NK cells

Answer: B

288. All are growth promoting oncogenes except ?
A. FGF
B. TGF-a
C. TGF-p
D. PDGF

Answer: C

289. Hyperplastic arteriolitis with nerotizing arteriolitis is seen in ?
A. Buerger’s disease
B. Benign hypertension
C. Malignant hypertension
D. Diabetes

Answer: C

290. Fibrosis is due to ?
A. TGF

B. TNF

C. IL – 7
D. IL – 10

Answer: A

291. In sickle cell anemia all are true except

A. Sickle cells
B. Target cells
C. Howell jolly bodies
D. Ringed sideroblast

Answer: D

292. Linitis plastica is a type of ?
A. Plastic like lining of stomach
B. Diffuse carcinoma of stomach
C. Benign ulcer
D. GIST

Answer: B

293. Microvesicular fatty liver is caused by ?
A. DM
B. Valproate
C. Starvation
D. IBD

Answer: B

294. Localised langerhans cells histiocytosis affecting head & neck is ?
A. Letterer-siwe disease
B. Pulmonary langerhans cell histiocytosis
C. Hand-schuller-christian disease
D. Eosinophilic granuloma

Answer: D

295. Which cytokine activate macrophages ?
A. IL-8
B. IFN-y
C. PAF
D. Leukotriene B4

Answer: B
.

296. Syphilitic aneurysm mostly involve ?
A. Arch of aorta
B. Descending aorta
C. Abdominal aorta above the renal arteries
D. Abdominal aorta below the renal arteries

Answer: A

297. Hurthle cell carcinoma is a variant of ?
A. Medullary carcinoma
B. Papillary carcinoma
C. Follicular carcinoma
D. Anaplastic carcinoma

Answer: C

298. HLA is located on ?
A. Short arm of chr-6
B. Long arm of chr-6
C. Short arm of chr-3
D. Long arm of chr-3

Answer: A

299.Classification of aortic dissection depends upon?
A. Cause of dissection
B. Level of aorta affected
C. Percentage of aorta affected
D. None

Answer: B

300. Thalassemia gives protection against ?
A. Filaria
B. Kala-azar
C. Malaria
D. Leptospirosis

Answer: C

301. Maltoma is positive for?
A. CD 3
B. CD 10
C. CD 23
D. CD 5

Answer: C

302. Terminal stage of pneumonia is
A. Congestion
B. Red hepatization
C. Gray hepatization
D. Resolution

Answer: D

303. Intestinal angiodysplasia involves ?
A. AV malformation
B. Cavernous hemangioma
C. Capillary hemangioma
D. Malignant tumor

Answer: A

304. Perifascicular atropy of muscle fibres is seen in?
A. Steroid myopathy
B. Dermatomyositis
C. Inclusion body myositis
D. Nemaline myopathy

Answer: B

305. Marker of glomus tumor?
A. CD-57
B. Cytokeratin
C. S-100
D. CD-34

Answer: A

306. False about wound healing ?
A. Inhibited by infection
B. Inhibited by DM
C. Inhibited by hematoma
D. Inhibited by foreign body

Answer: C

307. Chromosome 22 deletion syndrome is ?
A. Down syndrome
B. Di George syndrome
C. Turner syndrome
D. Klinefelter syndrome

Answer: B

308. Creatinine kinase is elevated in MI after

A. 2 – 4 hrs.
B. 4 – 8 hrs.
C. 12 – 24 hrs
D. > 24 hrs.

Answer: A

309. Blood when stored at 4°C can be kept for ?
A. 7 days
B. 14 days
C. 21 days
D. 28 days

Answer: C

310. AML causing Gum hypertrophy ?
A. M1
B. M2
C. M3
D. M4

Answer: D

311. Type of necrosis in pancreatitis ?
A. Fibrinoid
B. Coagulative
C. Fat
D. Caseous

Answer: C

312. Resolution of inflammation caused by ?
A. TNF Alfa, IL-1 and CRP
B. TNF beta, IL-6 and CRP
C. TNF Alfa, IL 10 and IL 1 receptor antagonist
D. TNF gamma

Answer: C

313. Not a carcinogen for bladder cancer?
A. Benzidine
B. Isopropyl alcohol
C. Acrolein
D. Phenacetin

Answer: B

314. Drug induced lupus antibodies are found in ?
A. Anti-Rho
B. Ds-DNA
C. Anti-Sm
D. Anti-histone antibody

Answer: D

315. Donath landsteiner antibody is seen in?
A. PNH
B. Waldenstrom’s macroglobulinemia
C. Paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuri
D. Malaria

Answer: C

316. Cryoprecipitate is useful in?
A. Hemophilia A
B. Thrombosthenia
C. A fibrogenemi a
D. Warfarin reversal

Answer: C

317. DIC is common in which AML

A. Nonocytic (M5)
B. Promyelo cytic (M3)
C. Erythrocytic (M6)
D. Megakaryocytic (M7)

Answer: B

318. Example ofApoptosis is?
A. Councilman Bodies
B. Gamma Gandy Body
C. Russell bodies
D. None

Answer: A

319. Fibrinoid necorsis with neutrophilic infiltration is seen in ?
A. PAN
B. Giant cell arteritis
C. Takayasu arteritis
D. Wegener’s granulomatosis

Answer: A

320. Most common ocular lymphoma ?
A. T-cell lymphoma
B. Hodgkin’s lymphoma
C. B-cell NHL
D. Pre T-cell lymphoma

Answer: C

321. Cytokine causing fever A. IL-6
B. IFN-y
C. IL-18
D. IL-4

Answer: A

322. Normal transferrin is saturated with iron ?
A. 20%
B. 35%
C. 50%
D. 70%

Answer: B

323. All of the following immunohistochemical markers are positive in the neoplatic cells of granulocytic sarcoma, except ?
A. CD45 RO
B. CD 43
C. Myeloperoxidase
D. Lysozyme

Answer: A

324. In glomerulus subendothelial deposits are seen in?
A. Good pasture syndrome
B. IgA nephropathy
C. MPGN type I
D. MPGN type II

Answer: C

325. Thromboangitis obliterans is associated with ?
A. HLA B27
B. HLA – DR4
C. HLA – B5
D. HLA – DR2

Answer: C

326. Which antibodies in mother with SLE is responsible for congenital heart disease in child?
A. Anti-histone
B. Anti-Ro & Anti-LA
C. Anti ds DNA
D. Anti-centromere

Answer: B

327. Xerostomia is seen in all except ?
A. Sjogren syndrome
B. RA
C. Sarcoidosis
D. Midline granuloma

Answer: D

328. True regarding fibromuscular dysplasia are all except

A. Medium size vessels
B. OCPs predispose
C. Aneurysm may occur
D. Irregular hyperplasia

Answer: B

329. Not true about Alport’s syndrome ?
A. X-linked
B. Autosomal dominant
C. Nerve deafness
D. Glomerulonephritis

Answer: B

330. Peliosis hepatis is caused by all except?
A. Analgesics
B. Anabolic steroids
C. OC pills
D. Danazol

Answer: A

331. Pseudo-Pelger-Huet cells or seen in
A. Hairy cell leukemia
B. Multiple myeloma
C. Mylodysplastic syndrome
D. Hodgkin’s lymphoma

Answer: C

332. Acute phase reactants are all except ?
A. C-reactive protein
B. Haptaglobulin
C. Endothelin
D. Fibrinogen

Answer: C

333. All are true about non-bacterial thrombotic endocarditis, except ?
A. Cause emboli
B. Vegetation > 5 mm
C. No inflammatory reaction
D. Locally nondestructive

Answer: B

334. Which one of the following stains is specific forAmyloid?
A. Periodic Acid schif (PAS)
B. Alzerian red
C. Congo red
D. Von – Kossa

Answer: C

335. All are true about Fragile X syndrome except ?
A. Large head
B. Large nose
C. Large ear
D. Large testis

Answer: B

336. Concentric hypertrophy of left ventricle is seen in?
A. Mitral stenosis
B. Hypertension
C. Aortic regurgitation
D. None

Answer: B

337. Which does not cause sideroblastic anaemia?
A. INH
B. Chloramphenicol
C. Myelodysplastic anaemia
D. Mercury

Answer: D

338. Which of the following is not a myeloproliferative disease ?
A. Polycythemia vers
B. Acute myeloid leukemia
C. Chronic myeloid leukemia
D. Essential thrombocytosis

Answer: B

339. All of the following are associated with carcinoma colon except ?
A. Smoking
B. Alcohol
C. Fibre diet
D. Fatty food

Answer: C

340. Which of the following is labile cell ?
A. Cardiac cell
B. Liver parenchymal cell
C. Vascular endothelial cells
D. Surface epithelium

Answer: D

341. Glanzmann thrombasthenia is due to
A. Decreased GpIb
B. Decreased GpIIb/IIIa
C. Anti-GpIIb/IIIa antibodies
D. Inhibition or deficiency of ADAMTS 13

Answer: B

342. Vitamin A is stored in
A. Cells of Ito
B. Hepatocyte
C. Endothelial cell
D. Kupffer cell

Answer: A

343. Apoptotic gene is

A. Bax
B. Bcl2
C. Bclx
D. Mcl

Answer: B

344. Alpha one anti trypsin works by
A. inhibition of trypsin
B. inhibition of trypsinogen
C. inhibition of elastase
D. inhibition of chymotrypsin

Answer: C

345. Which one of the following is an autosomal recessive disorder?
A. Albinism
B. Huntington’s syndrome
C. Marfan’s syndrome
D. Neurofibromatosis-1

Answer: A

346. Fish mouth appearance of valve in RHD is due to

A. Rupture of valve
B. Calcification & fibrosis
C. Hypertrophy of ventricular wall
D. None of the above

Answer: B

347. Follicular lymphoma positivity?
A. Bcl-1
B. Bcl-6
C. Bcl- 2
D. None of the above

Answer: C

348. what is the histological difference between them in Ulcerative colitis & Crohn’s disease?
A. Diffuse distribution of pseudopolyps
B. Mucosal edema
C. Crypt abscess
D. Lymphoid aggregates in the mucosa

Answer: C

349. What is the cause of intracorpuscular defects in hemolysis?
A. Uremic syndrome
B. PCH
C. PNH
D. Portal hypertension

Answer: C

350. Type of necrosis seen in blood vessels due to immune reactions

A. Coagulation
B. Liquefaction
C. Fibrinoid
D. None

Answer: C

351. In a patient with lipoprotein lipase deficiency, which of the following is increased following a fatty meal?
A. Chylomicron
B. LDL
C. HDL
D. Apo-A

Answer: A

352. In Wilson’s disease, there is less urinary excretion of

A. Phosphorus
B. Methyl- Histidine
C. Phosphotyrosine
D. Serine

Answer: B

353. What is the function of IL1?
A. Enhances hematopoiesis
B. Stimulates mast cells
C. Has antiviral properties
D. Endogenous pyrogen

Answer: D

354. CEAP score indicates

a) Atrial disorders
B. Venous disorder
C. Neurological disorde
D. Trauma disorder

Answer: B

355. IL- 1 activated by

A. Capsase 1
B. Capsase 3
C. Capsase 8
D. Capsase 5

Answer: A

356. Parotid mass mixed consistency
A. Pleomorphic adenoma
B. Sebaceous cyst
C. Dermoid cyst
D. All

Answer: A

357. Krabbe’s disease is

A. Deficiency of Beta- galactosylcermidase
B. Deficiency of aryl sulphatase
C. Alpha galactosidase
D. Acid lipase

Answer: A

358. What is the choice of treatment for idiopathic thrombocytopenia purpura (ITP)?
A. Blood transfusion
B. Spontaneous recovery
C. IV infusion
D. Splenectomy

Answer: D

359. Most common nephropathy associated with malignaneN is:
A. Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis (FSGS)
B. Minimal change disease
C. IgA nephropathy
D. Membranous glomerulonephritis

Answer: D

360. Which of the following complement factors is a marker of humoral rejection?
A. C3d
B. C3b
C. C4d
D. C5a

Answer: C

361. Most reactive free radical is:
A. Peroxide
B. Carboxyl
C. Hydroxyl
D. Superoxide

Answer: C

362. Alpha-fetoprotein is a tumor marker for
A. Hepato cellular carcinoma
B. Multiple myeloma
C. Seminoma
D. Breast carcinoma

Answer: A

363. Hypercalcemia in sarcoidosis all are true except?
A. Parathormone level is increased
B. PTHrP level is increased
C. Calcitriol level is increased
D. Oral steroids are useful

Answer: A

364. Toll like receptors are seen on?
A. Macrophages
B. Natural killer cells
C. Endothelial cells
D. All of the above

Answer: D

365. Reversible change from on cell type to other is known as

A. Hyperplesia
B. Hypertrophy
C. Metaplesia
D. Dysplasia

Answer: C

366. Gaseous necrosis is seen in

A. CMV infection
B. Staphylococcal infection
C. Treponemal infection
D. HSV infection

Answer: C

367. Substance playing a role in tumour metastasis cascade is
A. Collagenase IV
B. TNF-alpha
C. CD99
D. NM23

Answer: A

368. Rb gene is located on which chromosome?
A. 6
B. 9
C. 13
D. 21

Answer: C

369. Absence of Ultra hepatic bile duct leads to which syndrome?
A. Von Meyenburg Complexes
B. Polycystic Liver Disease
C. Caroli Disease
D. Alagille Syndrome

Answer: D

370. True about Dentigerous cyst:
A. Arises in relation to unerupted teeth
B. It most commonly encroaches maxillary antrum
C. Mandibular third molar is common site
D. Common in mandible
E. All

Answer: A:C:D

371. Vitamin A deficiency leads to metaplasia of?
A. Squamous epithelium
B. Columnar epithelium
C. Both
D. None

Answer: A

372. Nuclei are arranged at the cell periphery in which type of cell?
A. Langhans giant cell
B. Merkel cells
C. NK cells
D. Neutrophils

Answer: A

373. Not true about VEGF is

A. Highly specific for endothelium
B. Hypoxia potentiates its expression
C. Inhibits angiogenesis
D. Helps in tumor metastasis

Answer: C

374. Acute phase reactants are stimulated by
A. IL-6
B. IL-1
C. TNF-a
D. All of the above

Answer: D

375. Lymphotactin is which type of chemokine?
A. C
B. C- C
C. C-X-C
D. C-X3-C

Answer: C

376. Active compound secreted by neutrophills against pathogen is known as?
A. Major basic protein
B. Myeloperoxidase
C. Hydrolase
D. Proteoglycans

Answer: B

377. Hydroxyl ions are destroyed in the body by?
A. Vitamin C
B. Vitamin A
C. Vitamin K
D. Vitamin D

Answer: A

378. Most common cancer to occur in organ transplant patient is?
A. Squamous cell carcinoma
B. Melanoma
C. Lung cancer
D. Colorectal cancer

Answer: A

379. Example of coagulative necrosis is

A. Acute tubular necrosis
B. Stroke
C. Malignant hypertension
D. Acute pancreatitis

Answer: A

380. Trilateral retinoblastoma is?
A. Bilateral Retinoblastoma plus medulloblastoma
B. Bilateral retinoblastoma plus pineoblastoma
C. Bilateral retinoblastoma plus neuroblastoma
D. Bilateral retinoblastoma plus ependymoma

Answer: B

381. What is the first sign of injury?
A. Mitochondrial dysfunction
B. Membrane damage
C. Diminished ATP
D. Release of lysosomal enzymes

Answer: A

382. Salivary schintigraphy is useful in?
A. Monomorphic adenoma
B. Pleomorphic adenoma
C. Sialidinitis
D. Sjogren syndrome

Answer: D

383. Most common site for ectopic thyroid tissue is?
A. Ovaries
B. Lingual
C. In front of hyoid bone
D. Stomach

Answer: B

384. Blebs are found in which type of injury?
A. Reversible
B. Irreversible
C. Both
D. None

Answer: A

385. Hydropic change is due to

A. Accumulation of water intracellularly
B. Fat accumulation intracellularly
C. Lysozyme degeneration
D. Glycogen accumulation intracellularly

 

Answer: A

386. Sphenoid dysplasia is seen in?
A. NF-1
B. Tuberous sclerosis
C. Sturge-Weber syndrome
D. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease

Answer: A

387. Hob nail appearance is seen in
A. Clear cell carcinoma
B. Endodermal sinus tumor
C. HCC
D. Choriocarcinoma

Answer: A

388. Chromosome for MEN2 gene is
A. 11q13
B. 13q11
C. 10811.2
D. 11q10-2

Answer: C

389. X-linked adrenoleukodystrophy is
A. Fatty acid disorder
B. Lysosomal storage disorder
C. Mucoplysaccharridoses
D. Glycogen defect disorder

Answer: A

390. Endothelial molecule involved in rolling
is A. ICAM 1
B. VCAM 1
C. CD 31
D. CD 34

Answer: D

391. Stain used for tubulin is
A. Luna stain
B. Cajal stain
C. SiR stain
D. Masson’s trichrome

Answer: C

392. Folding defect is associated with which disease
A. Parkinson’s disease
B. Marfan syndrome
C. Acute intermittent porphyria
D. Wermer syndrome

Answer: A

393. Marker for neuroblastoma among the following is?
A. NMP 22
B. Chromogranin A
C. LDH
D. 32 microglobulin

Answer: B

394. Vasodilatation following endothelial damage is due to ?
A. Histamine
B. IL-2
C. TGF-3
D. FGF

Answer: A

395. Least desmoplastic breast carcinoma is
A. Ductal
B. Lobular
C. Tubular
D. Medullary

Answer: B

396. Metastasis to thyroid comes from which primary site of malignancy?
A. Liver
B. Testis
C. Prostate
D. Kidney

Answer: D

397. Choroid metastasis is associated most commonly with?
A. Gastric carcinoma
B. Renal carcinoma
C. Brain tumor
D. Bone tumor

Answer: B

398. All are associated with diabetic gangrene except?
A. Wet gangrene
B. Dry gangrene
C. Gas gangrene
D. Fournier’s gangrene

Answer: C

399. Stain used for staining the nucleus is?
A. Safranin
B. Fast green
C. Hematoxylin
D. Erythrosine

Answer: C

400. Primary granules contain which enzyme?
A. Myeloperoxidase
B. Hydrolases
C. Lactoferrin
D. Phospholipase A2

Answer: A

401. Peroxidase enzyme found in neutrophills is used for

A. Macrophage activation
B. Chemotactic agent
C. Microbial killing
D. Vasodilatation

Answer: C

402. Penile carcinoma is usually?
A. Squamous cell carcinoma
B. Basal cell carcinoma
C. Adenocarcinoma
D. Small cell carcinoma

Answer: A

403. Delayed umbilical cord detachment leukocytosis is seen in?
A. Leukocyte adhesion deficiency
B. Chronic granulomatous disease
C. Severe combined immunodeficiency
D. None of the above

Answer: A

404. Collar button ulcer is found in?
A. Ulcerative colitis
B. Crohn’s disease
C. Shigella
D. All of the above

Answer: D

405. Phlegmonous gastritis occurs due to?
A. H. pylori
B. E. coli
C. C. jejuni
D. Cl. Tetani

Answer: B

406. Decrease in plasma osmotic pressure is cause of edema in?
A. CHF
B. DVT
C. Nephrotic syndrome
D. None

Answer: C

407. False about Patterson-Kelly-Brown syndrome is?
A. Anemia
B. Esophageal webs
C. Glossitis
D. Risk factor for adenocarcinoma

Answer: D

408. Normal time taken for scar formation after injury is?
A. 2 weeks
B. 3 weeks
C. 4 weeks
D. 5 weeks

Answer: C

409. Vitamin deficiency associated with cystic fibrosis is
A. K
B. B6
C. C
D. B12

Answer: D

410. Which type of healing occurs in an incisional wound with infection?
A. Primary
B. Delayed primary
C. Secondary
D. Tertiary

Answer: C

411. APC gene is involved in?
A. Colorectal carcinoma
B. Gastric carcinoma
C. Gastric lymphoma
D. Esophageal adenocarcinoma

Answer: A

412. Gene for embryogenic stem cell is

A. Oct-4
B. Nanog
C. GJA I
D. All of the above

Answer: D

413. Complement mediated hypersensitivity reaction is?
A. Type -1 hypersensitivity
B. Type -2 hypersensitivity
C. Type -4 hypersensitivity
D. None

Answer: B

414. T-cell mediated disease is?
A. Asthma
B. Myasthenia gravis
C. SLE
D. Sarcoidosis

Answer: D

415. Type 4 hypersensitivity reaction to TB antigen is similar to which of the following?
A. Serum sickness
B. Asthma
C. Myasthenia gravis
D. Temporal arteritis

Answer: D

416. Non IgE mediated anaphylactic reaction includes

A. Ig G
B. Ig M
C. Compliments
D. All of the above

Answer: D

417. Total colonic aganglionosis is a variant of?
A. Crohn’s disease
B. Ulcerative colitis
C. Hirschsprung’s disease
D. Tropical sprue

Answer: C

418. MHC1 is involved in?
A. Tumor lysis
B. Mixed leukocyte reaction
C. Autoimmune disease susceptibility
D. All of the above

Answer: A

419. Which disease is diagnosed by jejunal biopsy?
A. Celiac disease
B. Intestinal lymphoma
C. Argentaffinoma of intestine
D. Tropical sprue

Answer: B

420. CD4 is associated with HLA?
A. HLA 1
B. HLA 2
C. HLA 3
D. All of the above

Answer: B

421. All are true about Toll like receptors except?
A. Recognize microbial molecules
B. Activation of immune system
C. Regulation of calcium channel
D. Activation of transcription factors

Answer: C

422. Blood group most commonly associated with gastric carcinoma is?
A. Blood Group 0
B. Blood group A
C. Blood group AB
D. Blood group B

Answer: B

423. The most common organ to be involved in the acute phase of Graft vs host disease is?
A. Bone marrow
B. Skin
C. Liver
D. Gut

Answer: B

424. Autoimmune gastritis is associated with deficiency of vitamin?
A. A
B. B12
C. C
D. D

Answer: B

425. Normal value of CD4:CD8 ratio is

A. 0.5
B. 1
C. 1.5
D. 2

Answer: D

426. Normally squamo-columnar junction is usually located at
A. Distal 2-3 cms of esophagus
B. Proximal 2-3 cms of stomach
C. In esophagus more than 3cms proximal to GEJ
D. None of the above

Answer: B

427. Carcinoma associated most commonly with upper one third of esophagus is
A. Adenocarcinoma
B. Squamous cell Carcinoma
C. Adeno-squamous Carcinoma
D. Leiomyosarcoma

Answer: B

428. Anti Jo-1 antibodies are a feature associated with?
A. SLE
B. Systemic sclerosis
C. Polymyositis
D. Rheumatoid arthritis

Answer: C

429. HLA marker associated with diabetes mellitus type 1 is

A. B 7
B. DR 4
C. DQ 3
D. DQ 4

Answer: B

430. The zonal necrosis most commonly affected in chronic passive hepatic congestion is?
A. Central
B. Peripheral
C. Mid zonal
D. None

Answer: A

431. What is responsible for regeneration of liver cells?
A. HGF
B. VEGF
C. TGF-13
D. IFN-y

Answer: A

432. Expression of a gene is known as?
A. Genotype
B. Phenotype
C. Genome
D. Morphology

Answer: B

433. Group-D chromosome is?
A. Chromosome 3
B. Chromosome 6
C. Chromosome 12
D. Chromosome 15

Answer: D

434. Acute intermittent porphyria is associated with which type of inheritance?
A. Autosomal dominant
B. Autosomal recessive
C. X-linked dominant
D. X-linked recessive

Answer: A

435. Strawberry gall bladder is seen in
A. Cholesterosis
B. Primary sclerosing cholangitis
C. Cholestasis
D. Primary billiary cirrhosis

Answer: A

436. Inheritance associated with congenital adrenal hyperplasia

A. AR
B. AD
C. XR
D. XD

Answer: A

437. True about RCC is?
A. Most common site is lower lobe of kidney
B. Most common variety is papillary type
C. Invasion of renal vein is more common than renal artery
D. Most common site of metastasis is lymph nodes

Answer: C

438. Chronic bronchitis is associated with?
A. Increase in number of glands without any change in size
B. Bronchiolitis obliterans
C. Decrease in Reid index
D. Only large airways are involved

Answer: B

439. On polarising microscopy, refractile body in the centre of granuloma is seen in?
A. Sarcoidosis
B. Silicosis
C. Tuberculosis
D. Asbestosis

Answer: B

440. Most common type of pneumoconiosis, associated with TB is?
A. Silicosis
B. Bysinosis
C. Asbestosis
D. Baggassosis

Answer: A

441. Most common cause of chylothorax is?
A. Trauma
B. Lymphoma
C. Left-sided heart failure
D. Infections

Answer: B

442. Inheritance associated with fragile Xsyndrome is

A. Autosomal dominant
B. Autosomal recessive
C. X-linked dominant
D. X-linked recessive

Answer: C

443. Which type of paraneoplastic syndrome is most commonly associated with lung carcinoma?
A. SIADH
B. Gynaecomastia
C. Acanthosis nigricans
D. Hypocalcaemia

Answer: A

444. Metastasis to lungs come most commonly from
A. Breast carcinoma
B. Brain carcinoma
C. Bone carcinoma
D. Melanoma

Answer: A

445. Deficiency of p53 mutation is maximum in which lung carcinoma?
A. Small cell carcinoma
B. Squamous cell carcinoma
C. Adenocarcinoma
D. Lymphoma

Answer: B

446. In allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis, the location of lesions is
A. Pleura
B. Bronchi and bronchioles
C. Alveoli
D. All of the above

Answer: B

447. HOX gene is associated with
A. Cranio-caudal development
B. Brain development
C. Teeth formation
D. All of the above

Answer: A

448. Most common cancer found in coal mine workers
A. Anal canal
B. Testicular
C. Lung
D. Liver

Answer: C

449. Chromosome for ABO gene is?
A. 9q
B. 10p
C. 11 q
D. 12p

Answer: A

450. Pink puffers are associated with?
A. Emphysema
B. Chronic bronchitis
C. Pneumonia
D. Bronchiectasis

Answer: A

451. Granulomatous lung disease is caused by?
A. Hypersensitivity pneumonitis
B. Sarcoma
C. Bronchogenic carcinoma
D. Bronchogenic cyst

Answer: A

452. TEL-AML 1 fusion is associated with?
A. CLL
B. CML
C. ALL
D. AML

Answer: C

453. Cag A gene is associated with
A. Hepatocellular carcinoma
B. Esophageal carcinoma
C. MALT lymphoma
D. Lung carcinoma

Answer: C

454. Dutcher bodies are seen in?
A. Brain
B. Liver
C. Spleen
D. Bone marrow

Answer: D

455. Trinucleotide sequence associated with spino-cerebellar ataxia is?
A. CTG
B. CUG
C. GGG
D. CAG

Answer: D

456. CA-125 is?
A. Mucin glycoprotein
B. Carcinoma transmigration antigen
C. Mucopolysaccharide
D. Lipid

Answer: A

457. Li-fraumani syndrome occurs due to mutation in gene?
A. p53
B. p16
C. p41
D. p12

Answer: A

458. Most common tumor suppressor gene involved in cancer genesis is?
A. Rb
B. p53
C. p16
D. p73

Answer: B

459. Left side shift in Arneth’s count is seen in?
A. Megaloblastic anemia
B. Septicemia
C. TB
D. Liver disease

Answer: C

460. All are pre-malignant conditions except

A. Anaplasia
B. Metaplasia
C. Hamartoma
D. Dysplasia

Answer: C

461. Maximum life of transfused RBCs is
A. 110-120 days
B. 80-100 days
C. 60-80 days
D. 50-60 days

Answer: B

462. Soft wood exposure leads to

A. Nasal adenocarcinoma
B. Skin cancer
C. Liver cancer
D. Bladder cancer

Answer: A

463. Which test is used for both intrinsic and common clotting pathways?
A. Thrombin time
B. Partial thromboplastin time
C. Ristocetin agglutination test
D. FDPs

Answer: B

464. At which cell cycle checkpoint is the cell cycle halted if the cell’s DNA is damaged?
A. G I – S
B. S – G2
C. G2 – M
D. GO – GI

Answer: A:C

465. Which of the following is a procoagulant?
A. Thrombomodulin
B. Protein C
C. Protein S
D. Thrombin

Answer: D

466. Immunohistochemical marker for sentinel node biopsy for breast carcinoma is?
A. Cytokeratin
B. Vimentin
C. Calretinin
D. CD45

Answer: A

467. Scavenger receptors are for?
A. Oxidized LDL
B. Reduced LDL
C. HDL
D. VLDL

Answer: A

468. Characteristic histopathological feature of rheumatic heart failure is

A. Aschoff’s nodule
B. Mc Callumn patch
C. Bread & butter pericarditis
D. Shaggy vegetation

Answer: A

469. Not a feature of G-6PD deficiency?
A. Intravascular hemolysis
B. Oxidative stress
C. Membrane defect
D. Bite cells

Answer: C

470. Prosthetic valves are predisposed to

A. Thromboembolism
B. Infection
C. Hemolysis
D. All of the above

Answer: D

471. Most frequent time period between myocardial infarction and subsequent myocardial rupture is

A. 3-4 days
B. 4-8 days
C. 1-3 weeks
D. 3-6 weeks

Answer: A

472. Heinz bodies are removed by?
A. Macrophages
B. Lymphocytes
C. Neutrophils
D. Fibroblasts

Answer: A

473. Strawberry gums are seen in
A. Goodpasteur’s syndrome
B. Classic polyarteritis nodosa
C. Wegener’s granulomatosis
D. Kawasaki syndrome

Answer: C

474. Mutation in protein associated with restrictive cardiomyopathy?
A. Myosin regulatory proteins
B. Myosin binding protein-C
C. Troponin I
D. Tropomyosin

Answer: C

475. In apoptosis, protein hydrolysis is due to activation of
A. lipases
B. Transcarboxylase
C. Catalase
D. Caspases

Answer: D

476. Execution caspases of apoptosis are
A. Caspase 1 & 3
B. Caspase 3 & 5
C. Caspase 1 & 5
D. Caspase 3 & 7

Answer: D

477. Which of the following is not a free radical scavenger

A. Glutathione peroxidase
B. Superoxide dismutase
C. Catalase
D. Xanthine oxidase

Answer: D

478. Cellular swelling with blebs and myelin figures are the changes seen in
A. Reversible cell injury
B. Irreversible cell injury
C. Metaplasia
D. Anaplasia

Answer: A

479. Endothelial molecule participating in rolling is
A. CD 34
B. CD 65
C. CD 56
D. CD 100

Answer: A

480. What generates intracellular signals when cells are subjected to shear stress
A. Cadherins
B. Selectins
C. Integrins
D. Focal adhesion molecules

Answer: D

481. True about wound healing with primary intention is
A. By day 5 epidermis recovers its normal thickness
B. Intense inflammatory reaction
C. Wound contraction occurs
D. Abundant granulation tissue grows

Answer: A

482. The definition of exudate is
A. Extravascular fluid that has a high protein concentration and contains cellular debris
B. Extravascular fluid that has a low protein concentration
C. Extravascular fluid with high glucose concentration
D. Extravascular fluid with low glucose concentration

Answer: A

483. In tuberculosis the cytokine causing fever is
A. ILI
B. IL2
C. IL3
D. IL4

Answer: A

484. Which acute phase reactant induces rouleaux formation
A. C reactive protein
B. Fibrinogen
C. Serum amyloid A
D. IL 1

Answer: B

485. Hyperimmune IgE syndrome is also called
A. Jobs syndrome
B. Wiscott Aldrich syndrome
C. Chediak-Higashi syndrome
D. Digeorge syndrome

Answer: A

486. Complement CI synthesized from

A. Liver
B. Macrophage
C. Intestinal epithelium
D. Endothelium

Answer: C

487. Perform are produced by
A. NK cell
B. Cytotoxic T cell
C. Plasma cell
D. Monocyte

Answer: A

488. Most common known causes of congenital anamolies in humans are
A. Chromosomal aberrations
B. Maternal infections
C. Drugs
D. Irradiation

Answer: A

489. Mesothelioma is positive for which intermediate filament
A. Vimentin
B. Cytokeratin
C. GFAP
D. Desmin

Answer: B

490. Calretinin is used in
A. Mesothelioma
B. Hamartoma
C. Choristoma
D. Chordoma

Answer: A

491. Marker of angiosarcoma is
A. CD 31
B. Cytokeratin
C. Vimentin
D. CD 55

Answer: A

492. Keratinization and pearl formation is characteristic of
A. Squamous cell carcinoma
B. Basal cell carcinoma
C. Melanoma
D. Lymphoma

Answer: A

493. Grade of tumour denotes
A. Degree of differentiation
B. Degree of anaplasia
C. Stage of disease
D. Vascular invasion

Answer: A

494. Carcinoma due to inherited mutation of p53 protooncogene
A. Li fraumeni syndrome
B. Familial adenomatous polyposis
C. Retinoblastoma
D. Osteosarcoma

Answer: A

495. K ras mutation is seen in
A. Pancreatic carcinoma
B. Prostate carcinoma
C. Gastric carcinoma
D. Hepatic carcinoma

Answer: A

496. DIC is seen in all except
A. Carcinoma pancreas
B. Carcinoma prostate
C. Carcinoma lung
D. Carcinoma kidney

Answer: D

497. Histologic finding in hyperplastic arteriosclerosis
A. Concentric layer onion skin lesion
B. Mucinous intimal thickening
C. Fibrinoid atherosclerosis
D. All the above

Answer: D

498. Obliterative endarteritis of the vasa vasorum of aorta is seen in
A. Syphilis
B. Wegener’s
C. Chrug strauss
D. Cold haemoglobinuria

Answer: A

499. Which isoenzyme of LDH is seen in heart
A. LDH1
B. LDH2
C. LDH3
D. LDH4

Answer: A

500. MALToma is located in which layer of gastrointestinal tract
A. Lamina propria
B. Submucosa
C. Muscularispropria
D. Serosa

Answer: A

501. Not an irreversible injury

A. Pyknosis
B. Pyknosis
C. Karyolysis
D. Bleb formation

Answer: D

502. Hyaline degeneration is found in

A. MI
B. Parkinson’s’ disease
C. Yellow fever hepatitis
D. Basophilic cell of pituitary

Answer: C

503. Lipofuscin is
A. Wear and tear pigment
B. Fat deposits
C. Blood pigment
D. Form of calcification

Answer: A

504. Antiapoptotic gene
A. FLIP
B. P53
C. BAX
D. BIM

Answer: A

505. Skin involvement along with collar stud ulceration in intestine on radiography. Diagnosis is

A. TB intestine
B. Ulcerative colitis
C. Intestinal Amebiasis
D. Crohn’s disease

Answer: B

506. Solution currently used for liver preservation for transplant is

A. UW solution
B. IGL solution
C. Kyoto ET solution
D. Ross Marshal Citrate solution

Answer: A

507. Fibrosis associated with liver cirrhosis is mediated by

A. PDGF
B. IFN-y
C. ICAM-1
D. PcAM-l

Answer: A

508. Not a apoptotic gene
A. P53
B. Bax
C. Mcl-1
D. n-myc

Answer: D

509. Which of the following is false regarding carcinoid tumor ?
A. Neuroendocrine tumor
B. Most common site is lung
C. Associated with serotonin production
D. Potentially malignant tumor

Answer: B

510. Caseating necrosis occurs in
A. Brain
B. liver
C. kidney
D. lung

Answer: D

511. Spread of infection causes
A. Fibrinoid necrosis
B. Fat necrosis
C. Liquifactive necrosis
D. Coagulative necrosis

Answer: C

512. COXtype 3 is a product ofa) COX I gene
B. COX2gene
C. COX 3 gene
D. None ofthe above

Answer: A

513. Diabetic foot is associated with following type of gangrene

A. Dry gangrene
B. Wet gangrene
C. Gas gangrene
D. Fournier’s gangrene

Answer: B

514. Unfolded protein metabolism is associated with
A. Endoplasmic reticulum
B. Golgi apparatus
C. Mitochondria
D. None of the above

Answer: A

515. Not an example of excess tissue growth
A. Granulation tissue
B. Neoplasia
C. Hyperplasia
D. Fibrosis

Answer: A

516. 1st mediator of inflammation to be released is
A. Nitric oxide
B. PAF
C. Histamine
D. IL-1

Answer: C

517. Which of the following is potassium Channelopathy

A. Hypokalemic periodic paralysis
B. Hyperkalemic periodic paralysis
C. Episodic ataxia I
D. Long QT-syndrome

Answer: A

518. Rolling of leucocytes on endothelial cells is mediated by
A. ICAM-1
B. (3, integrin
C. IL-8
D. P- selectin

Answer: D

519. Perioperative shock is an example of
A. Hypovolemic shock
B. Septic shock
C. Cardiogenic shock
D. Neurogenic shock

Answer: A

520.Which of the following is not a part of ECM ?
A. Lectin
B. Fibronectin
C. Laminin
D. Proteoglycans

Answer: A

521. Calrexin and calreticulin are

A. Glycoproteins
B. Chaperons
C. Tumor markers
D. Enzymes

Answer: B

522. Which of the following is derived from fibroblast cells ?
A. TGF-13
B. MMP2
C. Collagen
D. Angiopoietin

Answer: C

523. HDL receptor is A. SR-BI
B. LDLR
C. HDLR
D. SR-82

Answer: A

524. Which of the following enhances acute phase response ?
A. a-2 microglobulin
B. Transferrin
C. Albumin
D. Retinal binding protein

Answer: A

525. IFN-gamma is produced by
A. Neutrophills
B. Macrophages
C. T – cells
D. B – cells

Answer: C

526. Homer rosette is seen in

A. Neurobastoma
B. Nephroblastoma
C. Hepatoma
D. Ependymoma

Answer: A

527. Extremities are warm in which type of shock
A. Hypovolemic shock
B. Neurogenic shock
C. Anaphylactic shock
D. Cardiogenic shock

Answer: B

528. Lysosome with undigested particle inside is known as

A. Residual body
B. Phagosome
C. Phagolysosome
D. Autophagosome

Answer: A

529. HLA-Cw6 is associated with
A. Myatshenia gravis
B. Behcet’s disease
C. Pemphigus vulgaris
D. Psoriasis vulgaris

Answer: D

530. Prusian blue detects?
A. Ferric iron
B. Ferrous iron
C. Glycogen
D. Lipids

Answer: A

531. Sezary cells show which tlpe of nucleus

A. Pleomorphic
B. Round
C. Eosinophillic
D. Cerebriform

Answer: D

532. MHC-2 is present in all except
A. Cortical macrophages
B. Medullary m acrophages
C. Cortical epithelial cells
D. Medullary epithelial cells

Answer: B

533. B cells are located in which region of lymph nodes
A. Paracortical region
B. Cortical follicles
C. Medullar sinuses
D. Subcapsular region

Answer: B

534. PSGN is an example of which type of hyper sensitivity
A. Type -1 hypersensitivity
B. Type -2 hypersensitivity
C. Type -3 hypersensitivity
D. Type -4 hypersensitivity

Answer: C

535. Number of criteria for HLA matching are
A. 10
B. 4
C. 16
D. 22

Answer: A

536. All of the following are features of granulomatous thyroiditis except?
A. Hyperthyroidism
B. Hypothyroidism
C. Painless
D. Giant cells on histology

Answer: C

537. Organ with least chance of rejection
A. Blood
B. Kidney
C. Heart
D. Liver

Answer: D

538. Mc type of graft rejection is
A. Hyperacute
B. Acute
C. Chronic
D. Acute on chronic

Answer: C

539. In follicular carcinoma chromosomal translocation is?
A. PAXS – PPARTI
B. RET – PTC
C. ALK – NMPI
D. IAK – TEL

Answer: A

540. True about serum sickness is
A. Type 2 hypersensitivity
B. Can lead to leukocytoclastic vasculitis
C. Hypercomplementemia
D. Can occur due to homologous antigen

Answer: B

541. Most lethal combination is
A. Autosomal monosomy
B. Chromosomal monosomy
C. Autosomal trisomy
D. Chromosomal trisomy

Answer: A

542. NotafeatureofPSGN

A. HTN
B. Increased urea
C. Increased creatinine
D. Normal C3 level

Answer: D

543. All of the following are true about Down syndrome except
A. Incidence of Robertsonian translocation is 1:1000
B. Extra chromosome is of maternal origin
C. Most common cause is trisomy 21
D. Mosaicism 21 has no association with maternal age

Answer: A

544. Hypophosphatemic rickets is
A. AR
B. AD
C. XR
D. XD

Answer: D

545. Irregular scarred kidney with pelvic dilatation is seen with

A. Chronic pyelonephritis
B. Polycystic kidney
C. Renalarterystenosis
D. Tuberculosis of kidney

Answer: A

546. Structure of chromosomes is studied by?
A. C-banding
B. G-banding
C. Q-banding
D. Brd V-staining

Answer: B

547. Location of gene on chromosome is identified by
A. Karyotyping
B. Genetic mapping
C. Microarray
D. Genomic imprinting

Answer: B

548. Tyrosine kinase receptor is associated with proto-oncogene

A. RAS
B. MYC
C. RET
D. RB

Answer: C

549. IgA nephropathyis not associatedwith?
A. Focal Mesengial proliferation
B. Gross hematuria within 1-2 daYs
C. On immunofluorescence deposits contain both IgA and IgG
D. Increased compliment level

Answer: D

550. Characteristic feature of IgA nephropathy

A. Serum compliment level is normal
B. More common in old age
C. It is a tFpe of membranoproliferative GN
D. Gross hematuria presents after l0 days

Answer: A

551. Which of the following has tumor promoting effect?
A. BRAC
B. RB
C. MYC
D. p16

Answer: C

552. CEA is
A. Hormone
B. Glycoprotein
C. Enzyme
D. Tumor associated protein

Answer: B

553. CEA is increased in which nonneoplastic condition
A. Hemolytic anemia
B. Pancreatitis
C. BPH
D. Pregnancy

Answer: A:B

554. Most common tnre of renal carcinoma is
A. Clear cell type
B. Chromophobe type
C. Papillarytype
D. Tubulartype

Answer: A

555. Carcinoma originating from glands is called
A. Basal cell carcinoma
B. Squamous cell carcinoma
C. Adenocarcinoma
D. Fibrosarcoma

Answer: C

556. Most common histological form of lung Ca that metastasizes is

A. Squamous cell CA
B. Adenocarcinoma
C. Alveolar-carcinoma
D. Small cell carcinoma

Answer: A

557. Hematological carcinoma is commonly linked to
A. Nicotine
B. Benzene
C. Lithium
D. Alcohol

Answer: B

558. Elastic fibers of tunica media are secreted by
A. Fibroblast
B. Endothelium
C. Smooth muscle
D. External lamina

Answer: C

559. Level of which of the following is not elevated in heart disease
A. LDH
B. 5-nucleotidase
C. SGOT
D. ALP

Answer: B

560. Radiotherapy induced radiation pneumonitis mediated by all of the following except

A. TNF-c
B. PAF
C. TGF-p
D. NF-kB

Answer: B

561. Which of the following does not predispose to leukemia?
A. Genetic disorder
B. Alcohol
C. Smoking
D. Chemical exposure

Answer: B

562. Routine Rh typing includes testing?
A. A antigen
B. B antigen
C. C antigen
D. D antigen

Answer: D

563. Ristocetin testing von Willebrand disease shows?
A. Increased agglutination
B. Decreasedagglutination
C. Normalagglutination
D. No agglutination

Answer: B

564. Osmotic fragility test is commonly used for

A. Iron deficienry anemia
B. Megaloblastic anemia
C. Hereditary spherocYtosis
D. Aplastic anemia

Answer: C

565. Warm antibody in AIHA is

A. IgE
B. IgM
C. IgG
D. IgD

Answer: C

566. What is true about sickle cell

A. Sickling occurs both in heterozygous and homozygous state
B. Fetal hemoglobin facilitates Sickling
C. Sickling is reversible with oxygenation
D. Sickling Leads to decreased MCHC

Answer: C

567. Distinguishing feature of reticulocyte is

A. Constitute 10% of the red cells
B. No nucleus
C. Smaller in size then RBCs
D. Mature in lymPh nodes

Answer: B

568. Normal Myeloid – erythroid ratio is

A. l:l
B. 2:l
C. 3:l
D. 4:1

Answer: C

569. hL/h blood group

A. lacks H- antigen
B. lacks A-antigen
C. lacks B- antigen
D. All of the above

Answer: D

570. Amount of blood loss in Stage I of haemorrhagic shock is

A. <10%
B. <20%
C. <30%
D. <40%

Answer: B

571. Which type of artery is most commonly involved in PAN?
A. Muscular
B. Pulmonary
C. Skin
D. GIT

Answer: A

572. Obliterative endarteritis in vasa vasorum is seen in

A. Hypertension
B. Tuberculosis
C. Syphilis
D. SLE

Answer: C

573. Heart failure cells are seen in

A. Pulmonary edema
B. Pulmonary infarction
C. Pulmonary abscess
D. PulmonaryTB

Answer: A

574. Heart failure cells are
A. Neutrophils
B. Macrophages
C. Lymphocytes
D. Basophils

Answer: B

575. Lines of Zahn are seen in

A. Heart
B. Lung
C. Liver
D. Kidney

Answer: A

576. Which protein is defective in dilatated cardiomyopathy?
A. Myosin
B. Troponin
C. Tropomyosin
D. Dystrophin

Answer: D

577. Which of the following is seen in young’s syndrome ?
A. Azoospermia
B. Bronchiectasis
C. Infertility
D. All of the above

Answer: D

578. Amyloidosis occurs in all except
A. Tuberculosis
B. Chronic bronchitis
C. Osteomyelitis
D. Bronchiectasis

Answer: B

579. Most common cause of death in SLE in children
A. Lupus nephritis
B. Lupus cerebrits
C. Libman sacks endocarditis
D. Anemia and infections

Answer: A

580. Small posterior fossa seen in ?
A. Arnold chiari malformation
B. Dandy walker
C. Medulloblastoma
D. Schizencephaly

Answer: A

581. Incorrect about HIV associated nephropathy ?
A. Proteinuria
B. Shrunken kidneys
C. 15% cases show mesengial proliferation
D. Develops when CD4<200

Answer: B

582. Pyogenic granulom true A/E
A. Bacterial infection
B. Bleeding
C. Benign tumour
D. Capillary hemangioma

Answer: A

583. Visceral aneurysm is most commonly seen in
A. Splenic
B. Renal
C. Hepatic
D. Coronary

Answer: A

584. All of the following provide protection against malaria except

A. Duffy blood group
B. Sickle cell anaemia
C. Hereditary spherocytosis
D. PNH

Answer: D

585. Thorium induced tumor
A. Angiosarcoma of liver
B. Renal cell carcinoma
C. Lymphoma
D. Astrocytoma

Answer: A

586. Most common malignancy of fallopian tube
A. SCC
B. Serous CA
C. Teratoma
D. Chorioca

Answer: B

587. Warthin finkeldey cells are seen in
A. Measles
B. Rubella
C. Rabies
D. Typhoid

Answer: A

588. CD59 marker of which disease
A. PNH
B. PTEN
C. BRR
D. Cowden syndrome

Answer: A

589. Opsonin is
A. C3a
B. C3b
C. C5a
D. C6

Answer: B

590. Bernard–Soulier syndrome due to deficiency of
A. Gp 2b/3a
B. Gp 1b
C. vWf
D. TNF

Answer: B

591. Cowden syndrome
A. P53
B. PTEN
C. Rb
D. Ras

Answer: B

592. Chromosome involved in myotonic dystrophy is
A. Chromosome 19
B. Chromosome 20
C. Chromosome 21
D. Chromosome 22

Answer: A

593. TRALI occurs within how many hours of transfusion?
A. 48 Hrs
B. 72 Hrs
C. 6 Hrs
D. 12 Hrs

Answer: C

594. Kidney responds to shock by
A. Decreases renal blood flow
B. Increases afferent arteriole resistance
C. GFR remains unaltered
D. Perfusion of kidney increases

Answer: B

595. Which of the following is epithelial tumour of stomach?
A. Carcinoid
B. Lymphoma
C. GIST
D. Gastric adenocarcinoma

Answer: D

596. Identify an X linked disorder?
A. Color blindness
B. Thalassemia
C. Azoospermia
D. Retinitis Pigmentosa

Answer: A

597. H And L variety seen in
A. Mixed cellularity hodgkin
B. Lymphocyte depleted
C. Lymphocyte predominance
D. Nodular sclerosis

Answer: C

598. Stellate granuloma seen in
A. Sarcoidosis
B. Cat scratch disease
C. Cryptococcosis
D. Histoplasmosis

Answer: B

599. Which best explains “Flipping effect”?
A. LDH 1 > LDH 2
B. LDH2 > LDH1
C. LDH 2 > LDH 3
D. LDH 3 > LDH 2

Answer: A

600. Nude mice is not resistant to xenograft due to absence of
A. B cell
B. T cell
C. Both b and t cell
D. None

Answer: B

601. Anaplasia is
A. Changing one type of epithelium to another
B. Nuclear chromatin
C. Lack of differentiation
D. Morphological changes

Answer: C

602. Which level of prolactin definitely suggest prolactinoma?
A. 300 ng/ml
B. 150 ng/ml
C. 200 ng/ml
D. 100 ng/ml

Answer: C

603. Laxative abuse causes which of the following renal stones ?
A. Uric acid
B. Ammonium urate
C. Struvite
D. Ca oxalate

Answer: B

604. Which of the following can result in dactylitis
A. Hemophilia
B. Von willebrand disease 1
C. Measles
D. Sickle Cell Anemia

Answer: D

605. Which chromosome is responsible for the production of MIF?
A. Chromosome 16
B. Chromosome 22
C. X Chromosome
D. Y chromosome

Answer: D

606. Which of the following condition is NOT caused by Parvovirus B19?
A. Roseola infantum
B. Aplastic anemia in sickle cell disease
C. Fetal hydrops
D. Erythema infectiosum

Answer: A

607. Which is true regarding ataxia telangiectasia:
A. Increase in AFP
B. Increases the risk of squamous cell carcinoma
C. Autosomal dominant
D. None of above

Answer: A

608. Term pathology refers to:
A. Work
B. Function
C. Details
D. Explains

Answer: A

609. Leiden thrombophilia is caused by mutational deficiency of which of the following factors?
A. Factor V
B. Factor VII
C. Factor IX
D. Factor X

Answer: A

610. A boy presented with multiple non suppurative osteomyelitis with sickle cell anaemia. What will be the causative organism?
A. Salmonella
B. S. aureus
C. H. influenzae
D. Enterobacter species

Answer: A

611. Positive acid Schiff macrophages seen in ?
A. Whipples disease
B. Crohns disease
C. AIDS
D. None of the above

Answer: A

612. What is the cause of myocardial shock other than MI ?
A. acute mitral regurgitation
B. ventricular septal rupture
C. isolated right ventricular shock
D. all of the above

Answer: D

613. WHICH IS NOT CORRECT:
A. MRI needed to access haemorrhage
B. GCS assessment helps in prognosis
C. Haematoma must be operated
D. all of the above

Answer: C

614. Genital warts are caused by which virus?
A. Herpes simplex
B. Human papilloma
C. Cytomegalovirus
D. Varicella zoster

Answer: B

615. Which metal results in “Saturnine gout” formation?
A. Cadmium
B. Lead
C. Beryllium
D. Mercury

Answer: B

616. Reed sternberg cells are found in
A. Hodgkin’s disease
B. Sickle cell anaemia
C. Thalassemia
D. CML

Answer: A

617. Marked bleeding is seen in which of following conditions?
A. VMA disease
B. Haemophilia A
C. Haemophilia B
D. ALL

Answer: D

618. Which of the following true regarding Haemophilia A
A. Serum levels of factor VIII are decreased
B. Deficiency of factor IX
C. PT increased
D. FIT decreased

Answer: A

619. Which of the following is seen in seropositive rheumatoid arthritis?
A. Multiple joints affected
B. Symmetrical joint symptoms
C. Joint pain and swelling
D. All

Answer: D

620. Which of the following is not seen in Anterior mediastinum
A. Thyroid tumour
B. Thymoma
C. Lymphoma
D. Neurogenic tumor

Answer: D

621. Struvite stone is caused by which metal?
A. Magnesium
B. Calcium
C. sodium & potassium
D. both (A. & (B.

Answer: A

622. Which of the following statements about Graves disease is false?
A. Results in hyperthyroidism
B. Autoimmune disorder
C. Common in Male
D. Referred as Toxic diffuse goitre

Answer: C

623. Which of the following is false about Alzheimer’s disease?
A. One in 10 people age 65 and older has Alzheimer’s disease
B. Alzheimer’s disease is curable
C. Cause dementia
D. All of the above

Answer: B

624. Which is not included in AIDS related complex?
A. Ectopic pregnancy
B. Recurrent genital candidiasis
C. Generalised lymphadenopathy
D. Chronic diarrhea

Answer: A

625. Which of the following are the risk factor for cutaneous lymphoma?
A. Age
B. Gender
C. Weakened immune system
D. All

Answer: D

626. A 30-year-old male came with complaints of swelling around the knee joint. Histopathological examination of the swelling demonstrated many giant cells interspersed with mononuclear cells. What is the probable diagnosis
A. Osteosarcoma
B. Ewing’s sarcoma
C. Giant cell tumour
D. Chondrosarcoma

Answer: C

627. 30 years old came with complaints of easy fatigability, exertional dyspnoea, and weight loss. She also complains of frequent falls. physical examination revealed there was a bilateral decrease in vibration sense. Her haemoglobin levels were 8.2g%. She was treated with folate. Her anaemia improved but neurological symptoms worsened. Which of the following is the most probable reason for her condition?

A. Folate not absorbed
B. Unmasked pyridoxine deficiency
C. Deficiency of folate reductase in CNS
D. Folate therapy caused rapid use of Vit B12 stores aggravating
symptoms

Answer: D

628. A 30-year-old woman presents with thyroid swelling. On investigations, her TSH levels are found to be elevated. Postoperative reports showed lymphocytic infiltration and hurthle cells. A most probable diagnosis is?
A. Graves disease
B. Hashimoto’s thyroiditis
C. Follicular carcinoma
D. Medullary carcinoma thyroid

Answer: B

629. Which of the following will be seen on cardiac biopsy of a patient who had a post MI reperfusion injury?
A. Waviness of fibres
B. Eosinophilic contraction bands
C. Neutrophils in cardiac cells
D. Swelling of cells

Answer: B

630. Loss of foot process is classical in case of?
A. Membranous glomerulitis
B. Segmental glomerulosclerosis
C. IgA nephropathy
D. Diabetic nephropathy

Answer: B

631. Which of the following factors play a major role in the initiation of thrombus formation?
A. Vasoconstriction
B. Coagulation cascade activation
C. Platelets activation
D. Endothelial injury

Answer: D

632. A 33-year-old man presents with a 5week history of calf pain, swelling, and low-grade fever. Serum levels of creatinine kinase are elevated. A muscle biopsy reveals numerous eosinophils also she had peripheral blood eosinophilia. Which of the following interleukins is primarily responsible for the increase in eosinophils in this patient?

A. IL 2
B. IL 4
C. IL 1
D. IL6

Answer: B

633. Which of the following is true about PAN?
A. Microscopy shows fibrinoid necrosis in large arteries
B. ANCA is positive
C. 30% of people have HbsAg positive
D. Patient have hypogammaglobulinemia

Answer: C

634. A 23-year-old male presented with a history of fatigue and tiredness. On investigation, he was found to have Hb values of 9gm%, MCV of 101 FL. peripheral smear examination showed microcytic RBC and hyper segmented neutrophils. Which is most probable aetiology
A. Lead poisoning
B. Iron deficiency anemia

C. Chronic alcoholism

D. Hemolytic anemia

Answer: A

635. What is the main feature of chemotaxis as observed in white blood cells?
A. Increased random movement of neutrophils
B. Increased adhesiveness to intima
C. Increased phagocytosis
D. Unidirectional locomotion of neutrophils

Answer: D

636. Which of the following anticancer drugs are competitive inhibitors of tyrosine kinase –
A. Imatinib and sunitinib
B. Letrozole
C. Bicalutamide
D. Fulvestrant

Answer: A

637. 20 years old man presented with the complaint of swelling of the wrist for the last two years. histopathological examination showed spindle-shaped cells and verocay bodies what is the diagnosis?
A. Lipoma
B. Dermoid cyst
C. Neuro fibroma
D. Schwannoma

Answer: D